Oracle Database Administration I | 1Z0-082 An Oracle Database Administration 2019 Certified Professional has proven
theoretical understanding of and the practical skills required to configure and
manage Oracle Databases up to and including Oracle 19c. Passing this 1st exam in
the 2 exam path proves your skills in SQL programming skills, database and
network administration.
Audience: Database Administrator
Exam Details
Exam Title: Oracle Database Administration I
Exam Number: 1Z0-082
Exam Price: $50
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 150 Minutes
Number of Questions: 90
Passing Score: 60%
Validated Against: Oracle Database Administration 2019 Certified Professional
Take Recommended Training Courses Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):
Oracle Database: Administration Workshop
Oracle Database: Introduction to SQL
Oracle Database Administration Learning Subscription
Unlimited Product Learning Subscription
Additional Preparation and Information A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs
and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.
Oracle Database 2019 Certification Overview and Study Guide
Understanding Oracle Database Architecture - Oracle Database: Administration
Workshop Understanding Oracle Database Instance Configurations
Understanding Oracle Database Memory and Process Structures
Understanding Logical and Physical Database Structures
Understanding Oracle Database Server Architecture
Managing Users, Roles and Privileges - Oracle Database: Administration
Workshop Assigning Quotas to Users
Applying the Principal of Least Privilege
Creating and Assigning Profiles
Administering User Authentication Methods
Managing Oracle Database Users, Privileges, and Roles
Moving Data - Oracle Database: Administration Workshop Using External Tables
Using Oracle Data Pump
Using SQL*Loader
Configuring Oracle Net Services - Oracle Database: Administration Workshop Using Oracle Net Services Administration Tools
Configuring Communication Between Database Instances
Configuring the Oracle Net Listener
Connecting to an Oracle Database Instance
Comparing Dedicated and Shared Server Configurations
Administering Naming Methods
Managing Undo - Oracle Database: Administration Workshop
Understanding Transactions and Undo Data
Storing Undo Information
Configuring Undo Rentention
Comparing Undo Data and Redo Data
Understanding Temporary Undo
Using Conversion Functions and Conditional Expressions - Oracle Database:
Introduction to SQL Applying the NVL, NULLIF, and COALESCE functions to data
Understanding implicit and explicit data type conversion
Using the TO_CHAR, TO_NUMBER, and TO_DATE conversion functions
Nesting multiple functions
Using SET Operators - Oracle Database: Introduction to SQL Matching the SELECT statements
Using the ORDER BY clause in set operations
Using The INTERSECT operator
Using The MINUS operator
Using The UNION and UNION ALL operators
Managing Views - Oracle Database: Introduction to SQL
Retrieving Data using the SQL SELECT Statement - Oracle Database:
Introduction to SQL Using Column aliases
Using The DESCRIBE command
Using The SQL SELECT statement
Using concatenation operator, literal character strings, alternative quote
operator, and the DISTINCT keyword
Using Arithmetic expressions and NULL values in the SELECT statement
Reporting Aggregated Data Using Group Functions - Oracle Database:
Introduction to SQL
Restricting Group Results
Creating Groups of Data
Using Group Functions
Managing Tables using DML statements - Oracle Database: Introduction to SQL Managing Database Transactions
Using Data Manipulation Language
Controlling transactions
Managing Schema Objects - Oracle Database: Introduction to SQL Creating and using temporary tables
Managing constraints
Managing Database Instances - Oracle Database: Administration Workshop
Starting Up Oracle Database Instances
Using Data Dictionary Views
Shutting Down Oracle Database Instances
Using Dynamic Performance Views
Using the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR)
Using the Alert Log and Trace Files
Managing Initialization Parameter Files
Managing Storage - Oracle Database: Administration Workshop Managing Resumable Space Allocation
Shrinking Segments
Deferring Segment Creation
Using Space-Saving Features
Deploying Oracle Database Space Management Features
Managing Different Types of Segments
Using Table and Row Compression
Understanding Block Space Management
Accessing an Oracle Database with Oracle supplied Tools - Oracle Database:
Administration Workshop
Using the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA)
Using Oracle Enterprise Manager Cloud Control
Using racle enterprise Manager Database Express
Using SQL Developer
Using SQL Plus
Managing Tablespaces and Datafiles - Oracle Database: Administration Workshop
Viewing Tablespace Information
Creating, Altering and Dropping Tablespaces
Managing Table Data Storage
Implementing Oracle Managed Files
Moving and Renaming Online Data Files
Restricting and Sorting Data - Oracle Database: Introduction to SQL
Applying Rules of precedence for operators in an expression
Limiting Rows Returned in a SQL Statement
Using Substitution Variables
Using the DEFINE and VERIFY commands
Displaying Data from Multiple Tables Using Joins - Oracle Database: Introduction
to SQL
Using Self-joins
Using Various Types of Joins
Using Non equijoins
Using OUTER joins
Understanding Data Definition Language - Oracle Database: Introduction to SQL
Using Data Definition Language
Managing Data in Different Time Zones - Oracle Database: Introduction to SQL Working with CURRENT_DATE, CURRENT_TIMESTAMP,and LOCALTIMESTAMP
Working with INTERVAL data types
Using Single-Row Functions to Customize Output - Oracle Database:
Introduction to SQL Manipulating strings with character functions in SQL SELECT and WHERE
clauses
Performing arithmetic with date data
Manipulating numbers with the ROUND, TRUNC and MOD functions
Manipulating dates with the date function
Using Subqueries to Solve Queries - Oracle Database: Introduction to SQL Using Single Row Subqueries
Using Multiple Row Subqueries
QUESTION 2
Which statement is true about the INTERSECT operator used in compound queries?
A. Multiple INTERSECT operators are not possible in the same SQL statement
B. It processes NULLs in the selected columns
C. INTERSECT is of lower precedence than UNION or UNION ALL
D. It ignores NULLs
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which three statements are true about advanced connection options supported by Oracle Net for connection
to Oracle Database instances? (Choose three.)
A. Connect Time Failover requires the use of Transparent Application Failover (TAF)
B. Source Routing requires the use of a name server
C. Source Routing enables the use of Connection Manager (CMAN) which enables network traffic to be
routed through a firewall
D. Load Balancing can balance the number of connections to dispatchers when using a Shared Server
configuration
E. Load Balancing requires the use of a name server
F. Connect Time Failover requires the connect string to have two or more listener addresses configured
Answer: B,CF
QUESTION 4
Which two statements are true about date/time functions in a session where NLS_DATE_FORMAT is set to
DD-MON-YYYY HH24:MI:SS? (Choose two.)
A. CURRENT_TIMESTAMP returns the same date and time as SYSDATE with additional details of fractional
seconds
B. SYSDATE can be queried only from the DUAL table
C. CURRENT_DATE returns the current date and time as per the session time zone
D. SYSDATE can be used in expressions only if the default date format is DD-MON-RR
E. SYSDATE and CURRENT_DATE return the current date and time set for the operating system of the
database server
F. CURRENT_TIMESTAMP returns the same date as CURRENT_DATE
Answer: B,C
QUESTION 5
A database is configured to use automatic undo management with temporary undo enabled.
An UPDATE is executed on a temporary table.
Where is the UNDO stored?
A. in the undo tablespace
B. in the SYSAUX tablespace
C. in the SGA
D. in the PGA
E. in the temporary tablespace
Answer: A
QUESTION 6
You have been tasked to create a table for a banking application.
One of the columns must meet three requirements:
1. Be stored in a format supporting date arithmetic without using conversion functions
2. Store a loan period of up to 10 years
3. Be used for calculating interest for the number of days the loan remains unpaid
Which data type should you use?
A. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH
B. INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND
C. TIMESTAMP WITH LOCAL TIMEZONE
D. TIMESTAMP
E. TIMESTAMP WITH TIMEZONE
Certification Overview This certifies a student can install, implement, manage and administer an
Isilon scale-out storage solution in a live datacenter environment.
Certification Requirements To complete the requirements for this certification you must:
1. Achieve one of the following pre-requisite certifications*
• Associate - Information Storage and Management Version 2.0
• Associate - Information Storage and Management Version 3.0
• Associate - Information Storage and Management Version 4.0
• Specialist – Implementation Engineer, Isilon Solutions Version 2.0
• Specialist – Systems Administrator, Isilon Solutions Version 2.0
Overview This exam is a qualifying exam for the Specialist - Implementation Engineer,
Isilon Solutions (DCS-IE) track.
This exam focuses on the implementation of an Isilon scale-out storage solution.
The course prepares students to perform Isilon cluster installation and
implementation. Students will be familiar with Isilon software modules and
configurations including: SmartConnect , SMB, NFS, multi-protocol, data
protection/replication in single and multi-cluster implementations, archive
deployment, snapshots and replication, deduplication, RBAC, SNMP integration,
analytics, support and monitoring.
Dell Technologies provides free practice tests to assess your knowledge in
preparation for the exam. Practice tests allow you to become familiar with the
topics and question types you will find on the proctored exam. Your results on a
practice test offer one indication of how prepared you are for the proctored
exam and can highlight topics on which you need to study and train further. A
passing score on the practice test does not guarantee a passing score on the
certification exam.
Products likely to be referred to on this exam include but are not limited
to: • OneFS v8.2
• InsightIQ 3.0
• Isilon Generation 5 Nodes
• Isilon Generation 6 Nodes
Exam Topics Topics likely to be covered on this exam include:
Isilon Fundamentals and Authentication (16%) • Describe the Isilon storage concepts such as Scale out versus Scale up,
architecture, and OneFS details
• Identify and describe Isilon hardware components and intended use cases
including both Gen 5 and Gen 6 hardware types
• Identify and describe how an administrator accesses a cluster using WebUI, SSH,
and Multi-factor SSH
• Describe cluster dependencies on NTP, LDAP, Active Directory, and other
dependent configurations
Isilon Networking (17%) • Configure Access zones and base directories with the proper folder
structure layout
• Describe the basic internal and external network configurations,
multi-tenancy, groupnets, subnets, pools and rules
• Identify and explain the various network configurations in Gen 5 and Gen 6
including link aggregation, failover LACP, FEC, and Round Robin
• Describe how to integrate SmartConnect, SmartConnect zones, DNS, SSIP, IP
address pools, and load balancing
• Explain the use of VLAN, SBR, and NANON
Authentication, Identity Management, Authorization (10%) • Differentiate the use of RBAC and ZRBAC
• Explain the use of user identifiers and the proper use of ID mapping
• Identify and describe POSIX and ACLs permission rubrics
Client Protocols, Hadoop, and Auditing (13%) • Describe OneFS caching levels and use cases
• Configure SMB shares with SMB3 Continuous Availability (CA) and Server-Side
Copy with protocol auditing and file filtering
• Configure NFS exports with NFSv4 Continuous Availability (CA)
• Identify and describe Hadoop and Swift configurations and features
Data Protection and Layout (14%) • Identify FEC data protection levels, file striping, and Reed-Solomon
protection definitions
• Differentiate between requested, suggested, and actual protection levels and
verify with isi get commands
• Differentiate concurrent and streaming data layout models, use cases, and
performance impacts
• Explain storage pools, policies, neighborhoods, global namespace, spillover,
and VHS
OneFS Modules and Data Services (13%) • Differentiate between SmartPools, storage pools, SSD usage, and file pool
policies
• Describe how SmartQuotas are configured and identify the characteristics of
SmartDedupe capabilities
• Identify SnapshotIQ features, CoW and RoW mechanics, and scheduling
• Identify and describe how to prepare the cluster for SyncIQ disaster recovery
OneFS Job Engine (10%) • Identify and describe the OneFS Job Engine architecture, components, and
workers and circumstantial modes
• Describe the various job types, exclusion sets, priorities, and impacts
• Describe how jobs are managed in real time and how the schedule is maintained
Upgrades and Monitoring (10%) • Describe how upgrades are applied to a cluster including rollback and
commit options
• Explain the importance of firmware updates, ARR, and the Upgrade Helper tool
• Describe the installation of InsightIQ monitoring and reporting, and the use
of isi statistics commands
The percentages after each topic above reflects the approximate distribution of
the total question set across the exam.
QUESTION 1 When reviewing the actual protection output of N+4/2, what does the number
“4” represent?
A. FEC stripe units per stripe
B. Hard drives used per stripe
C. Volume stripes per file system
D. FEC stripe units per file system
Answer: A
Explanation:
It's OneFS FEC protection nomenclature for our "hybrid" protection polices. More
generally, it's written as: N+M/b
where "N" is the number of data stripe units in a stripe, "M" is the number of
FEC stripe units in a stripe, and "b" is the number of stripe units in a stripe
which are allowed to reside on the same node.
QUESTION 2 What impact can obsolete drive firmware have on an Isilon cluster?
A. Reduces administrative overhead and increases performance.
B. Affects redundancy settings and FEC coding.
C. Affects cluster performance or hardware reliability.
D. Increases runtime and cluster performance.
Answer: C
QUESTION 3 What defines FEC link aggregation mode?
A. Switches to the next interface when the primary interface becomes
unavailable.
B. Balances outgoing traffic based on hashed protocol header information that
includes source and destination addresses, and VLAN tag.
C. Balances outgoing traffic based on hashed protocol header information that
includes source and destination addresses.
D. Balances outbound traffic across all active ports in the aggregated link.
Answer: B
QUESTION 4 In Isilon OneFS, what is a characteristic of CoW with snapshots?
A. Used for small changes, inodes, and directories.
B. Avoids the double write penalty.
C. Increases file fragmentation.
D. Used for more substantial changes such as deletes.
Answer: A
Explanation:
With copy on write, as the name suggests, a new write to HEAD results in the old
blocks being copied out to the snapshot version first.
Although this incurs a double write penalty, it results in less fragmentation of
the HEAD file, which is better for cache prefetch, etc.
Typically, CoW is most prevalent in OneFS and is primarily used for small
changes, inodes and directories.
QUESTION 5 Which OneFS networking option enables Isilon for DNS multitenant
functionality?
Secure new opportunities. Do you know how to assess the vulnerability of a network and help prevent
attacks before they happen? Do you know how to perform WLAN security audits and
implement compliance monitoring solutions? Do you have experience setting up
Wireless Intrusion Prevention Systems (WISPS)?
Today’s wireless network security professionals need to have a deep
understanding of the latest software, tools, trends and technologies available.
Security professionals are often counted on to advise on security policies (i.e.
password and acceptable use). Plus, these experts are responsible for
configuring an entire network’s Security Design and Architecture.
Measure your skills and knowledge with this professional-level certification and
get on track toward ultimately earning your Certified Wireless Network Expert (CWNE)
certification. Those that pass the CWSP exam earn credit towards a CWNE
certification.
What it takes to become a CWSP: The CWSP certification is a professional level wireless LAN certification
for the CWNP Program. To earn a CWSP certification, you must hold a current and
valid CWNA credential. You must take the CWSP exam at a Pearson Vue Testing
Center and pass with a 70% or higher. Instructors must pass with a 80% or
higher. However you choose to prepare for the CWSP exam, you should start with
the exam objectives, which cover the full list of skills tested on the exam. The
CWSP certification is valid for three (3) years. To recertify, you must have a
current CWNA credential and pass the current CWSP exam. By passing the CWSP
exam, your CWNA certificate will be renewed for another three years.
Main areas covered by CWSP WLAN Discovery Techniques
Intrusion and Attack Techniques
802.11 Protocol Analysis
Wireless Intrusion Prevention Systems (WIPS) Implementation
Layer 2 and 3 VPNs used over 802.11 networks
Enterprise/SMB/SOHO/Public-Network Security design models
Managed Endpoint Security Systems802.11 Authentication and Key
Exam Objectives CWSP-206 Exam Objectives 2019 (CWSP-206 Exam will replace
CWSP-205 in September of 2019)
Management Protocols
Enterprise/SMB/SOHO/Public-Network Security Solution Implementation
Building Robust Security Networks from the ground up
Fast BSS Transition (aka. Fast/Secure Roaming) Techniques
Thorough coverage of all 802.1X/EAP types used in WLANs
Wireless LAN Management Systems (WNMS)
Authentication Infrastructure Design Models
Using Secure Applications
802.11 Design Architectures
Implementing a Thorough Wireless Security Policy
Official Wi-Fi Security Self Study Kit (including a Study Guide, Practice Test
and Exam Voucher)
Wi-Fi Security eLearning
Live Network Certification Training Class QUESTION 1
You have a Windows laptop computer with an integrated, dual-band, Wi-Fi compliant adapter. Your laptop
computer has protocol analyzer software installed that is capable of capturing and decoding 802.11ac data.
What statement best describes the likely ability to capture 802.11ac frames for security testing purposes?
A. Integrated 802.11ac adapters are not typically compatible with protocol analyzers in Windows laptops. It is
often best to use a USB adapter or carefully select a laptop with an integrated adapter that will work.
B. Laptops cannot be used to capture 802.11ac frames because they do not support MU-MIMO.
C. Only Wireshark can be used to capture 802.11ac frames as no other protocol analyzer has implemented
the proper frame decodes.
D. All integrated 802.11ac adapters will work with most protocol analyzers for frame capture, including the
Radio Tap Header.
E. The only method available to capture 802.11ac frames is to perform a remote capture with a compatible
access point.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
In order to acquire credentials of a valid user on a public hotspot network, what attacks may be conducted?
Choose the single completely correct answer.
A. MAC denial of service and/or physical theft
B. Social engineering and/or eavesdropping
C. Authentication cracking and/or RF DoS
D. Code injection and/or XSS
E. RF DoS and/or physical theft
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
What WLAN client device behavior is exploited by an attacker during a hijacking attack?
A. After the initial association and 4-way handshake, client stations and access points do not need to perform
another 4-way handshake, even if connectivity is lost.
B. Client drivers scan for and connect to access point in the 2.4 GHz band before scanning the 5 GHz band.
C. When the RF signal between a client and an access point is disrupted for more than a few seconds, the
client device will attempt to associate to an access point with better signal quality.
D. When the RF signal between a client and an access point is lost, the client will not seek to reassociate with
another access point until the 120 second hold down timer has expired.
E. As specified by the Wi-Fi Alliance, clients using Open System authentication must allow direct client-toclient
connections, even in an infrastructure BSS.
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
What software and hardware tools are used in the process performed to hijack a wireless station from the
authorized wireless network onto an unauthorized wireless network?
A. A low-gain patch antenna and terminal emulation software
B. MAC spoofing software and MAC DoS software
C. RF jamming device and a wireless radio card
D. A wireless workgroup bridge and a protocol analyzer
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Many computer users connect to the Internet at airports, which often have 802.11n access points with a
captive portal for authentication. While using an airport hotspot with this security solution, to what type of
wireless attack is a user susceptible?
A. Wi-Fi phishing
B. Management interface exploits
C. UDP port redirection
D. IGMP snooping
Candidates for this exam are Microsoft Teams Administrators for their
organization. The Microsoft Teams Administrator configures, deploys, and manages
Office 365 workloads for Microsoft Teams that focus on efficient and effective
collaboration and communication in an enterprise environment.
The Teams Administrator must be able to plan, deploy, and manage Teams chat,
apps, channels, meetings, audio conferencing, live events, and calling. The
Teams Administrator is also responsible for upgrading from Skype for Business to
Teams.
The Teams Administrator collaborates with Telephony engineers to integrate
advanced voice features into Microsoft Teams. This role is not responsible for
configuring direct routing, configuring call routing, or integrating telephony.
The Teams Administrator may work with other workload administrator roles,
including security and compliance, messaging, networking, identity, and devices.
Candidates for this exam should be proficient at managing Teams settings by
using PowerShell. The Teams Administrator has a fundamental understanding of
integration points with apps and services, including but not limited to
SharePoint, OneDrive for Business, Exchange, Azure AD, and Office 365 Groups.
The Teams Administrator understands how to integrate external apps and services.
Part of the requirements for: Microsoft 365 Certified: Teams Administrator
Associate
Related exams: none
Skills measured
Plan and Configure a Microsoft Teams Environment (45-50%)
Manage Chat, Calling, and Meetings (30-35%)
Manage Teams and App Policies (20-25%)
QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have
more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You plan to configure the environment to allow external users to collaborate in Microsoft Teams by using guest
access.
The company implements a new security policy that has the following requirements:
Only guest users from specific domains must be allowed to connect to collaborate by using Microsoft
Teams.
Guest users must be prevented from inviting other guests.
You need to recommend a solution to meet the security policy requirements.
Solution: From the Microsoft Teams admin center, you modify the global meeting policy.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have
more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You plan to configure the environment to allow external users to collaborate in Microsoft Teams by using guest
access.
The company implements a new security policy that has the following requirements:
Only guest users from specific domains must be allowed to connect to collaborate by using Microsoft
Teams.
Guest users must be prevented from inviting other guests.
You need to recommend a solution to meet the security policy requirements.
Solution: From PowerShell, you run the New-AzureADPolicy and Set-AzureADPolicy cmdlets.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have
more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You plan to configure the environment to allow external users to collaborate in Microsoft Teams by using guest
access.
The company implements a new security policy that has the following requirements:
Only guest users from specific domains must be allowed to connect to collaborate by using Microsoft
Teams.
Guest users must be prevented from inviting other guests.
You need to recommend a solution to meet the security policy requirements.
Solution: From the Azure Active Directory, you modify the External collaboration settings.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have
more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription that uses an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named
contoso.com.
You need to prevent guest users in the tenant from using cameras during Microsoft Teams meetings.
Solution: From the Azure Active Directory admin center, you modify the External collaboration settings.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have
more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription that uses an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named
contoso.com.
You need to prevent guest users in the tenant from using cameras during Microsoft Teams meetings.
Solution: From Microsoft Teams admin center, you modify the External collaboration settings.
Does this meet the goal?
QUESTION 1 A developer needs to create a banner component. This component shows an
image across the full width of the
page. A title is shown on top of the image. This text can be aligned to the
left, middle, or right. The core
components feature a teaser component which matches almost all requirements, but
not all.
What is the most maintainable way for the developer to implement these
requirements?
A. Use and configure the teaser core component.
B. Create a new custom component from scratch.
C. Overlay the teaser core component.
D. Inherit from the teaser core component.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 A developer is working on a complex project with multiple bundles. One
bundle provides an OSGi service for other bundles.
Which two options are necessary to ensure that the other bundles can reference
that OSGi service? (Choose two.)
A. The bundles consuming the service need to import the fully qualified name of
the service interface.
B. The service needs to correctly declare metatype information.
C. The bundle providing the service needs to contain a whitelist of allowed
consumer bundles.
D. The bundle providing the service needs to contain an adequate SCR descriptor
file.
E. The bundle providing the service needs to export the java package of the
service interface.
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 3 The structure section of an editable template has a locked component.
What happens to the content of that component when a developer unlocks it?
A. The content stays in the same place but it ignored on pages using the
template.
B. The content is moved to the initial section of the editable template.
C. The content is deleted after confirmation from the template author.
D. The content is copied to the initial section of the editable template.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 Which log file contains AEM application request and response entries?
A. response.log
B. request.log
C. history.log
D. audit.log
QUESTION 1
Which security feature would you configure to delegate responsibility for a
subset of resources to a junior administrator group?
A. No Password for admin account
B. SBAC (Scope Based Access Control)
C. CLI Only access
D. RBAC (Role Based Access Control)
Answer: B
QUESTION 2 An administrator needs to add multiple BladeSystem c7000 enclosures to a new
instance of HPE OneView.
The enclosures are currently being monitored by a different instance of HPE
OneView.
What must the administrator do before beginning importing the enclosure to the
new HPE OneView appliance?
A. Add Frame Link Module.
B. Edit the Enclosure license to be HPE OneView Advanced.
C. Add enclosure for management.
D. Delete the enclosure from the current HPE OneView Appliance.
Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Your customer is planning to use HPE OneView to manage the following
environment:
- 4 HPE BladeSystem c7000 enclosures with BL460c Gen10 and Virtual Connect
modules
- 20 HPE ProLiant DL380 Gen10 servers
- 1 HPE 3PAR StoreServ array
Which components will need an HPE OneView license? (Choose two)
A. Virtual Connect modules
B. c7000 enclosures
C. 3PAR array
D. BL460c Gen10 server blades
E. DL380 Gen10 servers
Answer: C,D
QUESTION 4 Which HPE OneView feature enables the detection of lost Ethernet
connectivity on interconnect uplink ports?
A. M-LAG
B. Smart Link
C. QoS
D. VxLAN
Answer: B
QUESTION 5 What mechanism does HPE OneView use to get status data from devices as a
fail-safe approach to SNMP traps?
A. Periodic Polling
B. Dashboard charts
C. SNMP trap storms
D. REST API
QUESTION 1 What is a reason for a company to choose to deploy an Aruba 7024 Mobility
Controller (MC) rather than an Aruba 7010 MC
A. to support 802.11ac Aps rather than only 802.11n APs
B. to support more wireless users
C. to support more POE devices directly connected to the MC
D. to support a faster firewall throughput rate
Answer: C
QUESTION 2 A company wants to provide wireless access for guests with their Aruba
solution. Which configuration feature requires the customer to purchase PEFNG
licenses?
A. redirection of guests to an external captive portal
B. provision of DHCP services to unauthenticated guests
C. addition of custom rules to control access for authenticated guests
D. customization of the internal captive portal login page
Answer: C
QUESTION 3 A company has an Aruba Mobility Master (MM)-based solution. A network
administrator wants to collect and analyze information about clients and access
points (APs) over extended periods of time.
What should the administrator do to achieve this goal?
A. Add Aruba AirWave to the solution.
B. Run a Traffic Analysis report on the MM.
C. Make sure that MM has sufficient AppRF licenses.
D. Enable archival from the MM interface Maintenance windows.
Answer: A
QUESTION 4
What is a requirment for the Dashboard > Traffic Analysis window on the Aruba
Mobility Master (MM) to show data?
A. Airmatch and ClientMatch must be enabled.
B. The solution must have active PEFNG licenses.
C. Firewall policies must include application filtering rules.
D. WLANs must use the decrypt-tunnel forwarding option.
Answer: B QUESTION 5 How can network administrators upgrade AirMatch on an Aruba Mobility Master
(MM)?
A. Upgrade Client Match as part of a global software upgrade, and upgrade
AirMatch separately as a loadable service module (LSM).
B. Upgrade AirMatch as part of a global software upgrade, and upgrade Client
Match separately as a loadable service module (LSM).
C. Upgrade AirMatch and Client Match through a global software upgrade.
D. Upgrade Client Match and AirMacth separately as a loadable service modules (LSMs).
Exam ID : HPE6-A45
Exam type Proctored
Exam duration 1 hour 30 minutes
Exam length 60 questions
Passing score 67%
Delivery languages English, Japanese
Supporting resources These recommended resources help you prepare for the exam:
Implementing Aruba Switching, Rev. 17.41
Additional study materials Aruba Certified Switching Professional Study Guide
Register for this Exam You need an HPE Learner ID and a Pearson VUE login and
password.
No reference material is allowed at the testing site. This exam may contain beta
test items for experimental purposes.
During the exam, you can make comments about the exam items. We welcome these
comments as part of our continuous improvement process.
Exam description This exam tests your skills with wired configurations of Aruba Mobile First
Solutions in complex two-tier and three-tier networks with redundancy. It tests
your skills to build to a given implementation plan and deploy consistent wired
access control technologies to mirror the wireless access control policies. It
also tests your ability to configure specialized applications and security
requirements for a LAN.
Ideal candidate for this exam
Typical candidates for this exam are networking IT professionals who have
advanced-level implementation experience with ArubaOS wired switching solutions.
This candidate has a minimum of 4 to 5 years of general networking experience
and 2 years of experience focused on interpreting network architectures and
customer requirements to install and configure Aruba solutions.
Exam contents This exam has 60 questions.
Advice to help you take this exam Complete the training and review all course materials and documents before
you take the exam.
Use HPE Press study guides and additional reference materials; study guides,
practice tests, and HPE books.
Exam items are based on expected knowledge acquired from job experience, an
expected level of industry standard knowledge, or other prerequisites (events,
supplemental materials, etc.).
Successful completion of the course or study materials alone, does not ensure
you will pass the exam.
Objectives This exam validates that you can:
Percentage of Exam Sections/Objectives
14% Plan the wired network solution. Given a scenario with an architect's design and/or customer requirements,
identify gaps between the design and customer requirements.
Given a scenario with an architect's design and/or customer requirements,
determine an appropriate implementation, monitoring, and management plan.
46% Install and configure the wired network solution. Given an implementation plan, configure backplane stacking and VSF.
Given an implementation plan, explain how to configure Layer 2 technologies.
Given an implementation plan, explain how to configure and validate Layer 3
interfaces, services, routing protocols and overlays.
Explain multicast features and configuration concepts.
Explain ArubaOS-Switch security features and configuration concepts.
Explain QoS ArubaOS-Switch features and configuration concepts.
Explain mobility integration features and configuration concepts.
27% Troubleshoot the wired network solution. Given a scenario, identify a failure such as an IP mismatch, VLAN mismatch,
hardware failure, or configuration error.
Given an action plan to remediate an issue, determine the implications to the
network state.
Given a scenario, determine the cause of the performance problem such as QoS
issue, configuration issue with hardware and software, and end node.
Given a scenario, predict the outcome based on the changes to the security
configuration.
Given a scenario with an identified security issue, determine the remediation
actions.
13% Manage, maintain, optimize, and monitor the wired network solution. Given a scenario, determine a strategy to implement configuration management
(maintenance, auditing, backup, archiving) and to monitor the network.
Analyze data that represents the operational state of a network and determine
the appropriate action.
Sample questions Sample questions are provided only as examples of question style, format and
complexity/difficulty. They do not represent all question types and do not
reflect all topic areas. These sample questions do not represent a practice
test.
QUESTION 2
An administrator wants to ensure that an AOS-Switch forwards all traffic that it
receives on interface 1 with high priority.
- Switches should also communicate the high priority to other switches across
the traffic path.
- The switch has type of service disabled.
- The administrator plans to apply 802.1p priority 5 to interface 1.
QUESTION 1
What should the administrator check to ensure that the configuration will work
properly?
A. Interface 1 receives traffic with a tag.
B. The AOS-Switch is configured to use eight queues.
C. The forwarding path for the traffic uses VLAN tags.
D. An 802.1p-to-DSCP map exists for priority 5.
Answer: A
QUESTION 2 An AOS-Switch implements tunneled node.
Which benefit does the PAPI enhanced security key provide?
A. It validates the signature for firmware pushed to the switch dynamically.
B. It encrypts traffic sent and received by tunneled-node endpoints.
C. It authenticates control traffic between the switch and its Mobility
Controller.
D. It provides an extra layer of authentication for endpoints on tunneled-node
ports.
Answer: C
QUESTION 3 OSPF Area 1 has two ABRs. One ABR is configured with this range for Area 1:
10.10.0.0/16. The other ABR is not configured with a range for Area 1.
Which type of issue occurs due to this mismatch?
A. The ABRs create a discontinuous area and disrupt intra-area routing between
devices within Area 1.
B. The ABR core would send Area 1 traffic destined to the other switch through
an access switch.
C. The ABRs lose adjacency entirely and cannot route traffic between each other
at all.
D. The ABRs lose adjacency in Area 1 and must route all traffic to each other
through Area 0.
Answer: A
QUESTION 4 What must an OSPF router do to ensure nonstop routing should a standby
member take over as commander when the original VSF commander fails?
A. It must run the shortest path first algorithm.
B. It must participate in a new election for the Designated Router.
C. It must initiate a graceful restart.
D. It must re-establish adjacency with its Designated Router.
Description The certification test SAP Certified Application Associate - Quality
Management with SAP ERP 6.0 EhP5 verifies the basic knowledge in the area of the
SAP Quality Management. This certificate proves that the candidate has a basic
overall understanding within this consultant profile of the QM solutions, and
can implement this knowledge practically in projects under guidance of an
experienced consultant. It is recommended as an entry-level qualification to
allow consultants to get acquainted with the fundamentals of SAP Quality
Management.
Notes To ensure success, SAP recommends combining education courses and hands-on
experience to prepare for your certification exam as questions will test your
ability to apply the knowledge you have gained in training.
You are not allowed to use any reference materials during the certification test
(no access to online documentation or to any SAP system).
Topic Areas Please see below the list of topics that may be covered within this
certification and the courses that cover them. Its accuracy does not constitute
a legitimate claim; SAP reserves the right to update the exam content (topics,
items, weighting) at any time.
Implement QM in Discrete Manufacturing > 12%
Describe the unique processes for implementing QM in Discrete Manufacturing PLM400 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)
PLM412 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)
PLM415 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)
PLM420
Implement & Configure Quality Control > 12%
Explain the configuration requirements of Quality Control
PLM400 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)
PLM412 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)
PLM415 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)
PLM420
Implement & Configure Quality Planning 8% - 12%
Explain the configuration requirements of Quality Planning
PLM400 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)
PLM412 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)
PLM415 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)
PLM420
Implement & Configure Quality Inspection 8% - 12%
Explain the configuration requirements of Quality Inspection
PLM400 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)
PLM412 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)
PLM415 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)
PLM420
QM in Process Industries < 8%
Describe the QM business processes used in Process Industries
PLM400 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)
PLM415 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)
PLM420
Integration of QM with S&D and Service < 8%
Describe how QM integrates with Sales and Service
PLM400 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)
PLM415 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)
Integration of QM and MM < 8%
Configuration and Organization < 8%
Configure Organizational elements used in QM
PLM400 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)
PLM412 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)
PLM415 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)
PLM420
Audit Management < 8%
Describe the process of Audit Management
PLM400 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)
Quality Notifications < 8%
Describe the purpose and features of Quality Notifications
PLM400 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)
PLM412 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)
Quality Certificates < 8%
Describe the purpose and features of Quality Certificates
PLM400 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)
Sample Management < 8%
Describe the purpose and features of Sample Management.
PLM400 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)
PLM412 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)
PLM415 (EHP7 FOR ERP 6.0)
PLM420
General Information
Exam Preparation
IMPORTANT: All SAP consultant certifications are now available as Cloud
Certifications in the Certification Hub and can be booked with product code
CER006. With CER006 – SAP Certification in the Cloud, you can take up to six
exams attempts of your choice in one year – from wherever and whenever it suits
you! Test dates can be chosen and booked individually.Those of you who prefer to
get certified on-site at an SAP training center instead can still do so.
Official dates for the certification tests are listed on the right.
Each specific certification comes with its own set of preparation tactics. We
define them as "Topic Areas" and they can be found on each exam description. You
can find the number of questions, the duration of the exam, what areas you will
be tested on, and recommended course work and content you can reference.
Certification exams might contain unscored items that are being tested for
upcoming releases of the exam. These unscored items are randomly distributed
across the certification topics and are not counted towards the final score. The
total number of items of an examination as advertised in the Training Shop is
never exceeded when unscored items are used.
Please be aware that the professional- level certification also requires several
years of practical on-the-job experience and addresses real-life scenarios.
For more information refer to our FAQs.
• SAP Global Certification FAQ – Overview
• SAP Global Certification FAQ – Exam Process
• SAP Global Certification FAQ – Post-Exam Process
Safeguarding the Value of Certification
SAP Education has worked hard together with the Certification & Enablement
Influence Council to enhance the value of certification and improve the exams.
An increasing number of customers and partners are now looking towards
certification as a reliable benchmark to safeguard their investments.
Unfortunately, the increased demand for certification has brought with it a
growing number of people who to try and attain SAP certification through unfair
means. This ongoing issue has prompted SAP Education to place a new focus on
test security. Please take a look at our post to understand what you can do to
help to protect the credibility of your certification status.
Our Certification Test Security Guidelines will help you as test taker to
understand the testing experience. QUESTION 1
In the quality management view in the material master you can maintain the specifications for procurement for
the following using the QM control key:
A. Release required
B. Block inactive
C. Technical Delivery Terms
D. Quality Assurance Agreement
E. Certificate Requirement
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
You can record inspection results for an inspection lot, using defect data or characteristic results
A. Correct
B. Incorrect
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which of the following statements accurately describe a client in an SAP system? (More than one answer is
true.)
A. A client has its own database.
B. A client may represent an entire company.
C. A client represents a completely independent business entity.
D. A client corresponds to a customer.
QUESTION 1 What does the Resource Permissions portlet allow the administrator to do?
A. Configure third-party authentication.
B. View inherited role assignments for only users.
C. Assign roles explicitly to specific users and groups.
D. Allow multiple logins with the same user ID and password.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 When OAuth is supported as an authentication provider, from which account
can users log in to IBM WebSphere Portal?
A. Yahoo
B. Twitter
C. Google
D. Facebook
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 Which IBM WebSphere Application Server security setting(s) must be enabled
for the WebSphere Portal to function correctly?
A. Administrative Security
B. Administrative Security and Application Security
C. Administrative Security, Application Security, and Java2 Security
D. WebSphere Application Server security is not required for the WebSphere
Portal to function correctly.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 Which ConfigEngine task is used to create a virtual portal?
A. setup-virtual-portal
B. enable-virtual-portal
C. create-virtual-portal
D. install-virtual-portal
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 Leslie has been asked to create a realm for a new virtual portal using
sub-branches (base distinguished
names) from three LDAP registries: LDAP-A, LDAP-B and LDAP-C.
Which statement must be valid in order to be able to create the realm using LDAP,
LDAP-B and LDAP-C?
A. The short name of the virtual portal administrator distinguished name (for
example "wpsadmin") must exist in all three LDAPs.
B. The base distinguished name of the LDAP registries is not important. Any LDAP
registry combination is possible for creating a realm.
C. Distinguished names must be unique in each registry. For example, if the
distinguished name uid=wpsadmin,o =mybiz,c=us exists in LDAP-B, it must not
exist in either LDAP-A, or LDAP-C.
D. The base distinguished names of at least two of the three LDAPs must overlap.
For instance, consider that LDAP-A contains o=mybiz,c=us; LDAP-B contains o=east,o=mybiz,c=us;
and LDAP-C contains o=mybiz,c=uk. LDAP-A and LDAP-B overlap.
Autonomous Database Technical Overview Describe the architectural components of Autonomous Database (ADB)
Describe how ADB integrates with the Oracle Cloud Platform
Articulate the key features of Autonomous Database
Describe a typical workflow for using ADB
Understand the OCI Infrastructure
Describe how database security is leveraged in ADB
Migration and Data Loading into Autonomous Database Describe the options and considerations for migrating to ADB
Using SQL Developer to test data loading scenarios
Migrate to ADB using Data Pump
Migrate to ADB using Golden Gate
Supporting business users with Data Sync
Load data using DBMS_CLOUD
Monitoring Autonomous Database Monitor ADB performance
Use services in ADB
Provisioning and Connectivity Provision an Autonomous Database service
Find and download database credentials
Connect to an ADB service
Navigate the OCI console
Managing and Maintaining Autonomous Database
Manage users and user privileges in ADB
Start, stop and scale ADB
Use rest APIs to manage ADB
Use the OCI command line to manage ADB
Manage ADB Backups and Restores
Explore ADB using SQL Developer
Understand ADB for Experienced Users
Tools, Reporting and Analytics using Autonomous Data Warehouse (ADW) Describe how to use ADW with 3rd party software
Describe how to use Machine Learning algorithms with ADW
Describe how to build analytic views
Explain how to use Oracle Machine Learning notebooks with ADW
Explain how to use the Oracle Analytics Cloud with ADW
Explain how to use Data Visualization Desktop with ADW
Build visualizations using Data Visualization Desktop and ADW
QUESTION: 1
Which is the correct subset of services offered via OCI-CLI (command line interface) for Autonomous
Database (ABD) via calls made to the OCI API's?
A. Create, Query, Update, List, Start
B. Create, Query, List, Stop, Restore
C. Create, Get, List, Stop, Restore
D. Start, Delete, Update, Query, Stop
Answer: B
QUESTION: 2
Which three tasks by default are taken care of by the Autonomous Database?
A. Database Upgrades
B. Application User Creation
C. Backups
D. Firmware Patching
E. Data Loading
Answer: A,C,E
QUESTION: 3
Which three data dictionary views contain information about analytic view objects?
A. ALL_ANALYTIC_VIEW_PATHS
B. ALL_ANALYTIC_VIEW_DIM_CLASS
C. ALL_ANALYTIC_VIEW_ID_ATTRS
D. ALL_ANALYTIC_VIEW_LVLGRPS
E. ALL_ANALYTIC_VIEW_KEYS
Answer: B,D,E
QUESTION: 4
What are three methods to load data into the Autonomous Database?
A. Transportable Tablespace
B. Oracle Data Pump
C. RMAN Restore
D. Oracle GoldenGate
E. SQL*Loader
Answer: B,D,E
QUESTION: 5
Which of these database features is NOT part of the Autonomous Database?
A. Flashback Database
B. Java in the Database
C. Real Application Clusters (RAC)
D. Online Indexing
Exam Title: Oracle Responsys Marketing Platform 2019 Implementation
Essentials
Exam Number: 1Z0-1032
Exam Price: Rs.22,584.00 More on exam pricing
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 120 Minutes
Number of Questions: 71
Passing Score: 63%
Validated Against: Oracle Responsys Marketing Platform Cloud Service 2019
Certified Implementation Specialist
Take Recommended Training Courses Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):
Additional Preparation and Information A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs
and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.
Responsys Data Model Describe the Responsys Data Model
Create and manage Contact Lists, Supplemental Tables, and Profile Extension
Tables
Create and manage Filters, Segment Groups, and Seed Groups
Integration: Interact Connect Describe the Data Gateway Setup process
Configure Connect jobs to import data
Configure Contact Event Data (CED) exports
Campaigns/Forms Create, manage, and test campaigns
Configure campaign settings in the Campaign Dashboard
Manage Campaign Categories, Link Categories, and Link Tables
Configure personalization using Built-in Functions or Responsys Personalization
Language
Configure dynamic content modules
Create and manage forms
Multi-Channel Campaigns Implement Rapid Retargeter display campaigns
Create Short Message Service (SMS) campaigns
Create Push campaigns
Responsys Personalization Language (RPL)
Develop basic RPL
Develop important RPL directives
Initial Configuration/Deliverability Describe domain branding and domain delegation, and gather initial account
settings
Describe how Responsys manages bounce processing, spam and feedback loops, and
soft bounce suppression
Perform IP Warm Up and IP Ramp Up
Configure global settings, campaign management options, domain suppressions,
soft bounce settings, external tracking, and campaign categories
Implement conversion tracking
Configure subscription management
Creating and Managing Content Create and manage documents
Read, write, and edit HTML code for emails
Apply responsive design techniques to emails
Programs
Design, manage, and publish programs
Analyze and test programs
Integrations Describe how Responsys integrates with technology partners
Describe Responsys API Authentication
Describe Responsys API scalability
QUESTION: 1
What three actions must you take to set up your new IP for deliverability
success with your major ISPs? (Choose three.)
A. Do everything possible to remove lapsed, bounced, or old email addresses to
increase the possibility of getting your emails into the inbox.
B. Set up a backup IP address so you will get through to the inbox even if you
are blocked by an ISP.
C. Automate the daily delivery of Insight Deliverability reports for your
warm-up campaigns, especially the Feedback Loop reports to check on true spam
complaint rates.
D. Ensure that your warm-up audience lists consist of recently opted-in,
opened/clicked within the last few months, or are known brand advocates.
Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION: 2 Which three actions will change the EMAIL_PERMISSION_STATUS_ column for a
profile list contact from opt-in to opt-out? (Choose three.)
A. Recipient deletes a promotional email from the inbox.
B. Use Set Data in a Responsys Program to change the EMAIL_PERMISSION_STATUS_
column in a profile list record from I to O.
C. Recipient selects a Reply-to unsubscribe in a promotional email.
D. Recipient registers a SPAM complaint for an email.
E. Recipient inbox is full, so the promotional email is rejected by the server.
Answer: C,D,E
QUESTION: 3 In every email, your client wants to provide a link so customers can
download their latest menu.
They want to serve this from the Responsys content library, updating the
document periodically.
How can they accomplish this?
A. Upload the document into Manage Hosted Content, then publish. Insert this URL
into every email
document. To update, unpublish the document, upload the current version with the
same name, and publish.
B. Upload the document into the Content Library. From the document pull-down
menu, select Create
Embeddable URL and copy the URL into every email. Upload and overwrite this
document with the
most current version as needed.
C. Your client must host and update the document from their own content server
and provide the
URL to Responsys. In the Responsys email documents, use the ServeURL function to
reference the
document as needed.
D. Upload the document into the Content Library. Right-click the document and
select Copy Link.
Insert this link into every email document. Upload and overwrite this document
as needed.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 4 You are planning an integration of Salesforce.com and Responsys. You
navigate to the Account
Administration screen to configure the access to Salesforce.com, but the
configuration options are not available.
What is the reason for this?
A. You need to work with Salesforce.com technical resources to configure the
gateway to Responsys
from within the Salesforce.com application.
B. You need to create a new user specifically for Responsys from within the
Salesforce.com application.
C. Responsys Customer Support must first enable the Salesforce integration
functionality before the
Account Administrator can configure the access between Salesforce.com and
Responsys.
D. You must first create a new Salesforce Connect job to enable the automated
data feed between
the Salesforce.com and Responsys contacts lists.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 5 While configuring the import of a PET table, you need to match new records
to existing records for the data merge.
Which two profile fields are options to configure the import to match existing
records? (Choose two.)
A. PET_ID_
B. EMAIL_ADDRESS_
C. CUSTOMER_ID_
D. ADDRESS_
Exam Title: Oracle Field Service Cloud 2019 Implementation Essentials
Exam Number: 1Z0-1003
Exam Price: Rs.22,584.00 More on exam pricing
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 120 Minutes
Number of Questions: 60
Passing Score: 67%
Validated Against: Oracle Field Service Cloud 2019 Implementation Specialist
Additional Preparation and Information A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs
and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.
Resources and Resource Types Describe Resource Types and Roles
Configure Resource Types
Configure resources for Routing
Time Windows Describe Time Slots, Service Windows, SLAs, and Delivery Windows
Inventory Types
Describe Inventory Types, consumption and management
Business Rules
Configure Business Rules settings
Work Zones
Describe the concepts of Work Zones
Display Settings
Configure OFSC Core Application display settings
Activity Link Templates
Create an Activity Link Template
OFSC APIs
Explain OFSC API capabilities
Create a Core REST API request
Routing
Describe Run Schedule, Assignment Parameters, and filtering options
Describe routing reoptimization
Configure a Routing Plan
Notification Engine
Describe the various launch conditions
Configure a Message Scenario
Service Requests
Configure a Service Request
User Types
Configure OFSC Core Application Screens
Configure User Types
Activity Types
Describe Activity Type Features
Configure Activity Types
Fields and Custom Properties
Describe the four types of custom properties and native system fields
Create a custom property
Work Skills
Describe the concepts of Work Skills and Work Skill Conditions
Configure a Work Skill and associated Conditions
Resource Calendars
Configure resource calendars
Outbound Integration Channels
Explain the options available within Outbound Integration Channels
Filters
Explain the usage of filters within OFSC
Create a filter
Statistics Parameters
Explain Duration and Travel Statistics and their parameters
Quota, Capacity and Booking
Describe Quota, Capacity and Booking Options
Configure Quota Management for Capacity Areas
Collaboration
Describe Collaboration features and usage
Plug-in Framework
Understand the capabilities of the mobility framework
QUESTION: 1 Which two default attributes serve as stand-alone keys for work zones?
A. Service Code
B. Completion Code
C. Fault code
D. Zip code
E. Travel area
F. City
Answer: D,E
QUESTION: 2 A customer wants to configure the OFSC GUI to show when a resource has not
activated their route
by the exact planned shift start time and send an email to the resource's
supervisor.
Which two options are true regarding how this requirement is supported?
A. Configuring a message scenario using the launch condition "Route is not
activated" will also
enable the Alert Setting "Route has not been started x minutes after the start
time of resource work day".
B. The Alert Setting "Route has not been started x minutes after the start time
of resource work day"
should be configured for 1 minute(s).
C. The Alert Setting "Route has not been started x minutes after the start time
of resource work day"
should be configured for 0 minute(s).
D. The configuration related to email notification must be performed in the
Message Scenarios.
Answer: A,B
QUESTION: 3 A utility company sees several "New Connect" activities being dropped into
the routing bucket during the day.
They want "Meter Read" activities to be removed from the technician's route so
that the "New
Connect" activities can be assigned if the technician qualifies for the activity
They enabled reoptimization in their route plan and created a reoptimization
filter targeting the
"Meter Read" activities.
What additional settings are required in the route plan to meet the desired
behavior?
A. Set the reoptimization goal to "Assign high priority activities". Then set
cost of not assigning an
activity for "Meter Read" on activities in existing routes to "High", whereas
cost of not assigning an
activity for "New Connect" in activities in the routing bucket to "Low".
B. Set the reoptimization goal to "Reduce Overdue". Then set cost of not
assigning an activity for
"Meter Read" on activities in existing routes to "High", whereas cost of not
assigning an activity for
"New Connect" in activities in the routing bucket to "Normal".
C. Set the reoptimization goal to "Assign high priority activities". Then set
cost of not assigning an act
or "Meter Read" on activities in existing routes to "Low", whereas cost of not
assigning an activity for
"New Connect" in activities in the routing bucket to "High".
D. Set the reoptimization goal to "Assign high priority activities". Then set
cost of not assigning an
activity for "Meter Read" on activities in existing routes to "Highest", whereas
cost of not assigning
an / for "New Connect" in activities in the routing bucket to "Normal”.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 4 A technician has been assigned a scheduled activity that he or she needs to
perform later in the day.
Their company has a policy that their technicians perform some advance testing
as an administrative task prior to the activity.
Which option would enable them to account for their time performing these tasks?
A. selecting "Prework" from within the activity In OFSC Mobility
B. adding a new "Prework" custom property to the "Edit/View activity" context in
OFSC Mobility
C. creating a "start-after" link template between the preliminary work and the
scheduled work
D. creating a "start-before" link template between the preliminary work and the
scheduled work
Answer: B
QUESTION: 5 A customer has found that there are some instances where their technicians
have recorded either
exceptionally short (for example, "one-minute-wonders") or long (for example,
they forgot to set the
status to "complete") activity durations.
Given the importance of accurate data in a time-based self-learning system,
which two constraints
are in place and can be modified to ensure that outlier circumstances such as
these do not affect
future activity duration estimations?
A. "Minimum relevant duration time in minutes" and "Maximum relevant duration
time in minutes"
B. "Personalize the estimation of activity duration" and "Initial ratio of
activity duration"
C. "Lower limit for personal ratio to calculate duration" and "Upper limit for
personal ratio to calculate duration"
D. "Minimum relevant travel time in minutes" and "Maximum relevant travel time
in minutes"
You demonstrate a foundational understanding of NetApp® data storage systems
and the products and technologies specifically designed for managing data in
today’s growing hybrid cloud market. You understand technologies in storage and
data management, both on-premise and in a hybrid cloud environment and have an
in-depth knowledge of NetApp products and technologies used in managing data in
the cloud.
NCSA-HC certificates will be granted to those individuals who successfully pass
the NetApp Certified Storage Associate-HC (NS0-146) exam.
NCTA will be granted to those individuals who successfully pass the NetApp
Certified Technology Associate (NS0-002) exam.
To learn more about the NCSA-HC certification, please download the NCSA-HC Data
Sheet or contact:
Recommended Training and Resources: NetApp Certified Storage Associate – Hybrid Cloud curriculum
Practice Exam for NS0-002
Practice Exam for NS0-146
Reference Document (PDF)
Introduction to NetApp Porftolio
Industry Essentials: Cloud Computing
Cloud Volumes ONTAP Fundamentals
Be Prepared to know Cloud Data Services Fundamentals
Be Prepared to know OnCommand Insight Fundamentals
Reference Technical Overview of SaaS Backup for MS Office365
Insight Sessions:
1250-1 Introduction to Data Transport with NetApp Cloud Sync
1232-1 Intelligent Operations Using NetApp Cloud Insights
Industry Essentials: HCI
NetApp HCI Fundamentals
Element Fundamentals
To enroll in NetApp University training, you will need a NetApp Support Site
account.
Take Your Exam The NetApp Certified Storage Associate – Hybrid Cloud (NCSA-HC) exam
includes 60 test questions, with an allotted time of 1-1/2 hours to complete. In
countries where English is not the native language, candidates for whom English
is not their first language will be granted a 30-minute extension to the
allotted examination completion time.
Your results will be available in CertCenter two (2) to five (5) business days
after you complete your exam.
The NetApp Certified Technology Associate (NS0-002) exam includes the following
topics:
Infrastructure Concepts Identify basic infrastructure, governance and virtualization concepts
Configuration and Administration basic knowledge for:
Cloud storage solutions
ONTAP Cloud or Cloud Manager
AltaVault QUESTION: 1
Your existing virtual environment is stored on a NetApp AFF array. You want to
reduce the capacity
utilization on this array while taking advantage of highly scalable cloud
storage.
Which ONTAP feature should you enable to satisfy these requirements?
A. FlexClone
B. StorageGRID
C. FlexCache
D. FabricPool
Answer: A
QUESTION: 2 What are three benefits of using NetApp Cloud Volumes ONTAP? (Choose three.)
A. storage efficiencies
B. serverless compute
C. automatic backup
D. automatic tiering
E. SnapMirror capabilities
Answer: A,C,D
QUESTION: 3 Which statement is true regarding application containerization?
A. Application containerization is designed for massive data sets.
B. Application containerization increases performance of virtual machines.
C. Application containerization requires the Linux operating system.
D. Application containerization provides increased portability.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 4 Which type of service is an Amazon EC2 instance?
A. networking
B. storage
C. compute
D. switch
Answer: C
QUESTION: 5 Which service does Cloud Volumes ONTAP tiering use?
A. Azure Stack
B. Azure Queue Storage
C. Azure Data Lake Storage
D. Azure Blob
Exam description The Aruba Certified ClearPass Associate Exam tests your foundational
knowledge of ClearPass Policy Manager and ClearPass Guest. This exam tests your
skills on how to configure ClearPass as an authentication server for both
corporate users and guests. It also tests your foundational knowledge of device
profiling and posture checks.
Ideal candidate for this exam Ideal candidates for this exam are networking IT professionals with a
minimum of six months experience in deploying modern network solutions for the
enterprise.
Exam contents This exam has 40 questions.
Advice to help you take this exam
Complete the training and review all course materials and documents before you
take the exam.
Exam items are based on expected knowledge acquired from job experience, an
expected level of industry standard knowledge, or other prerequisites (events,
supplemental materials, etc.).
Successful completion of the course alone does not ensure you will pass the
exam.
Read this HPE Exam Preparation Guide and follow its recommendations.
Visit HPE Press for additional reference materials, study guides, practice
tests, and HPE books.
Objectives 33% Overview and Active Directory
36% Guest and Onboard
31% Endpoint Analysis and Posture
QUESTION: 1 Your boss suggests that you configure a guest self-registration page in
ClearPass for the Conference Events SSID Which advantages will this give?
(Select two.)
A. It will allow guest users to create a login account for the web login page.
B. It will stop employees from putting their corporate devices on the event
network.
C. It will allow employees to get their own devices securely connected to the
network.
D. It will allow the Conference center to collect extra information about the
guest.
E. It can be pre-loaded with guest information from the conference registration.
Answer: A,D
QUESTION: 2 Which statements describe subnet scans for static IP device discovery?
(Select two.)
A. To run an On-Demand Subnet Scan, you must first configure a subnet scan in
the profile settings.
B. The On-Demand option provides the ability to trigger a one-time scan in
specified network subnets
C. The On-Demand option provides the ability to scan and profile devices only
with static IP.
D. Only SNMP can be used for subnet scans for subnets configured for DHCP.
E. Subnet scans can be scheduled to execute a scan every 24 hrs for configured
subnets.
Answer: BE
QUESTION: 3 Select three elements that are part of the authorization process. (Select
three.)
A. Send a RADIUS accept to the Access device.
B. Verify client credentials against your account.
C. Determine posture status.
D. Validate the user account attributes.
E. Filter by endpoint device type.
Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION: 4 What is the function of the primary and backup servers when configuring an
authentication source in ClearPass?
A. The primary server and backup servers can be configured for round-robin.
B. The primary server can be from one Active Directory domain: the backup server
can be from another
C. The primary server is always authenticated first then the backup is used if
authentication fails.
D. The primary server is always authenticated first then the backup is used if
that times out.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 5 Which actions are necessary to set up a ClearPass guest captive portal web
login page to execute with no errors? (Select three.)
A. Configure the vendor settings in the Network Access Device to match the web
login page.
B. Install a public issued HTTPS certificate in ClearPass Policy Manager.
C. Install a public issued HTTPS certificate in the Network Access Device.
D. Configure the vendor settings in the Web Login Page to match the Network
Access Device.
E. Install an enterprise issued HTTPS certificate in the Network Access Device.
F. Configure the external web-auth URL on the Network Access Device for HTTP
Take Recommended Training Courses Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):
Oracle Application Development Cloud Services Learning Subscription
Unlimited Cloud Learning Subscription
Additional Preparation and Information A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs
and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.
Our certification exams are revised regularly to align with training and product
release updates. Information about exam revisions and new topics are found on
this page under 'Validated Statement' and within the exam topics below.
Certifications reflect validated skills for the year and product release version
date of achievement. If you are preparing for this exam, we recommend you check
these topics periodically to ensure your exam prep covers any new topics that
may be added based on regular exam revision.
Getting Started with Oracle Cloud Application Integration Describe the key features & components of Application Integration
Explain Application Integration concepts
Describe Application Integration Architecture
Explain WSDL, XML/SOAP, WS, and REST/JSON functionality
Working with Service-Oriented Architecture Cloud Service (SOACS) Describe Concepts of Service orchestration, Adapters, Routing, and Security
Policy
Manage Events processing
Explain Enterprise Service Bus
Describe Mediatiors
Manage ESS - Enterprise Scheduler Services
Perform Administration and Deployment
Describe the concepts of SOA adapters and Cloud Adapters for SOA Cloud
Perform actions on user interfaces of Oracle SOA Cloud and manage the life cycle
of SOA Cloud instances
Build and deploy composite applications to Oracle SOA Cloud
Understand Oracle Managed File Transfer on OCI
Process Cloud Service
Explain how to develop business processes
Create Human Tasks and Web Forms
Manage Application Data
Create Decisions
Create Business Rules
Integrate with Applications and Services
Working with application integration (Oracle Integration Cloud - OIC) Explain how to configure OIC Environment, perform ICS administration tasks,
and manage security certificates
Create connections (to external systems)
Create Integrations/Orchestrations
Map Data (and Import mappings from Jdeveloper)
Create Lookups and Packages
Monitor/Manage Integrations (to include importing Prebuilt Integrations)
Explain On-Prem agents / configuration (to include: Scheduling, Configuring
Adapter Endpoints, debug, On Prem integration, and deploying/publishing an
Integration to API Platform Cloud Service.)
Describe orchestration view options and new OIC capabilities
Explore Oracle Integration Cloud best practices
Working with Integration API Platform Cloud Service Explain how to Stand up a Service Instance (fulfill prerequisites, create
and access service instances, follow best practices)
Manage Users (user management concepts and personas, create users and groups,
assign roles to users and groups)
Manage Gateways (install and configure gateway nodes, issue gateway grants,
configure OAuth 2.0 Providers)
Manage APIs (implement an API, deploy to a gateway, add documentation, publish
to the Developer Portal, issue API grants, apply policies)
Manage Services and Service Accounts
Use the Developer Portal (discover and register to APIs)
QUESTION: 1 What Mapper function can you use to get the lookup value in Mapping Builder?
A. GetLookupValue
B. FindLookupValue
C. LookupValue
D. SearchLookupValue
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION: 2 You provision an Oracle SOA Cloud Service instance and specify a compute
shape so that the JVM
heap size for WebLogic Serve, and Load Balancer processes are determined
automatically.
Which statement is correct after provisioning the instance in this scenario?
A. You can change the heap size to a maximum of 32GB.
B. You can change the heap size by logging a Oracle Cloud Support Service
Request.
C. You can change the heap size by using the Weblogic Server Administration
Console.
D. You cannot change the heap size once the Service Instance is provisioned.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION: 3 What policy is required to be in an API if that API is to be used under a
Plan?
A. Application Rate Limiting
B. Basic Auth
C. Key Validation
D. Interface Filtering
Answer: C
QUESTION: 4 Which two statements are true about implementing an API-First strategy?
A. The API is to be developed first before any UI or new business logic are
created.
B. It generally is assumed that SOAP/WSDL are the key specifications for
defining the API.
C. The code to execute business logic needs to exist and be exposed as an API
first before you build a strategy around it.
D. You define the API definition/contract first before any work on its
implementation or any applications that use it, allowing to work in parallel.
