QUESTION 1
The project manager needs assistance from the BPM analyst in building a process
roadmap. What tool should
the BPM analyst use to create a detailed list of areas of opportunity?
A. A Prioritization Matrix
B. A Root Cause Analysis Matrix
C. A Business Value Add Analysis Matrix
D. A Failures Mode Effect Analysis (FMEA) Matrix
Answer: A
QUESTION 2
A cable company is improving a process in their call center for requesting cable
service. The new process will
run in IBM Business Process Manager V7.5.1. The call center supervisor would
like to know how long it takes
the customer service representatives to take the customer requests before
passing the request to the engineering
department to provide the service. What should the BPM analyst recommend to
address the measurement
reporting requirement?
A. Use the My Performance scoreboard with Provide Cable Service filter.
B. Use the My Team Performance scoreboard with the Take customer service
request.
C. Use IBM Business Monitor to create a custom report with events from the
engineering department database.
D. Create a custom report with tracking points in the process with cable service
customer names.
Answer: B
QUESTION 3
A BPM analyst is documenting process problems during a discovery session. As a
problem is raised, what are
the two key factors the BPM analyst needs to capture about each problem to be
able to prioritize them later?
A. Time and effort to fix the problem for the as-is and to-be processes.
B. When the problem first occurs and how often it occurs in each milestone.
C. Severity and frequency of the problem at the process, milestone, or activity
level.
D. Who is the participant when the problem occurs and what other tasks does that
participant complete.
Answer: C
QUESTION 4
A project manager asks a BPM analyst to assist with defining a business case for
a company based on their
goals and objectives. What are key components to include in
support of a business case?
A. 1. Establish critical success factors
2. Identify KPIs
3. Identify business pain points
4. Calculate Return on Investment
B. 1. Establish critical success factors
2. Complete Playback 1 retrospective notes
3. Develop coaches from the future process
4. Calculate Return on Investment
C. 1. Identify system integrations
2. Run Process Optimizer Reports
3. Identify business pain points
4. Calculate user story points
D. 1. Complete Playback 1 retrospective notes
2. Identify KPIs
3. Develop coaches from the future process
4. Calculate user story points
Answer: A
QUESTION 5
A BPM analyst is performing a process inventory analysis at a company that has
many processes and has
gathered all required information to calculate a priority value for each process
in order to rank them.
How should the BPM analyst compute this?
A. Provide a scale and weight for each activity in the process.
B. Provide a scale for each process category and weigh the categories against
the processes.
C. Have the customer and the BPM analyst provide 2 different priority values
independently and calculate 1 priority value.
D. Count the number of activities in diagram and evaluate the complexity of the
diagram to provide a value and calculate a priority value.
Description The NSE 8 Fortinet Network Security Expert designation recognizes your
comprehensive knowledge of network security design, configuration, and
troubleshooting for complex networks. To attempt the exam, you must have
industry experience.
Who Should Attempt the NSE 8 Certification
We recommend this course for networking and security experts who use Fortinet
solutions. In addition to formal training, you should have experience with a
variety of complex networks, and can solve complicated security problems.
Program Requirements There are no prerequisites to take the Fortinet NSE 8 written exam. However,
you must take the NSE 8 written exam before you can take the Fortinet NSE 8
practical exam. The written exam is not a certification by itself. You must pass
both the written exam and practical exam to obtain NSE 8 certification.
To prepare for the exams, we recommend that you take the NSE 4 to NSE 7 training
courses and have comprehensive experience using Fortinet producsts in a
production environment. The courses are optional.
About the NSE 8 Written Exam The written exam is available worldwide, through Pearson VUE test center.
After you successfully pass the written exam, you must purchase your seat to
schedule the practical exam. Contact your regional Fortinet Training coordinator
to schedule and coordinate the NSE 8 practical. Practical exams are available
onsite at designated Fortinet NSE 8 test location.
The written exam contains questions about design scenarios with exhibits,
configuration extracts, and troubleshooting scenarios that assess your security
networking and Fortinet solution knowledge and experience. You are not allowed
to bring reference materials in to the exam room.
Name: NSE 8 - Network Security Expert 8 Written Exam (NSE8_811).
Available worldwide at: Pearson VUE Test Centers
Number of questions: 60
Time allowed to complete: 120 minutes
Scoring method: Answers must be 100% correct for credit. There are no partial
credit given or deductions for incorrect answers. You will receive a document
containing a general pass or fail result, and indication as to which sections
you passed or failed.
Type of questions: Multiple choice and multiple select
Time required between attempts: 15 days
NSE 8 Description The Fortinet Network Security Expert - NSE 8 certification is the highest
and most prestigious level in the Fortinet technical certification ladder. It
signifies a complete and thorough understanding of all Fortinet appliances,
including implementation, operation, advanced features and troubleshooting. The
Fortinet NSE 8 certification is designed to reflect best practices using
Fortinet devices and advanced networking and security solutions.
For any company running Fortinet security, the value of having an NSE 8
Certified Engineer onboard cannot be overstated. It increases any company’s
self-sufficiency and strengthens in the marketplace. Having a Fortinet NSE 8
certification in today’s IT market is invaluable when looking for employment.
Being a part of the very small Fortinet elite will make you an irresistible
asset to any company using Fortinet products. The reason for all the exclusivity
surrounding the NSE 8 certification comes down to one thing: the certification
is extremely hard to obtain, as it should be when it comes to any elite
certification.
NSE 8 Exam
The NSE 8 exam has two components: a written exam and a practical. To pass these
challenging exams you will need to work hard.
You can start by setting goals to study the areas you know the least and
dedicating a great amount of time practising in real lab scenarios.
In addition to self-study, you can attend the PrepForce 8 bootcamps (nse8.com),
though by Fortinet Certified Trainers, and NSE 8 certified expert themselves. As
an added benefit, you will be able to ask questions and receive useful tips on
how to approach the NSE 8 exam.
The PrepForce 8 advanced learning bootcamps are the first in the market
dedicated to addressing the Fortinet NSE 8 certification. Designed to be as
challenging as the exam itself, the PrepForce 8 bootcamps will increase your
likelihood of passing the official NSE 8 exam.
The NSE 8 certification is valid for two years. To learn more about the NSE 8
Certification. Download the NSE 8 Public Handbook.
It includes details about the Firmware Versions, Exam Components, Recommended
Study Materials, Delivery Process and Grading Procedure.
QUESTION 1 You want to access the JSON API on FortiManager to retrieve information on
an object.
In this scenario, which two methods will satisfy the requirement? (Choose two.)
A. Download the WSDL file from FortiManager administration GUI.
B. Make a call with the curl utility on your workstation.
C. Make a call with the SoapUI API tool on your workstation.
D. Make a call with the Web browser on your workstation.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 2 A customer wants to integrate their on-premise FortiGate with their Azure
infrastructure.
Which two components must be in place to configure the Azure Fabric connector?
(Choose two.)
A. FortiGate-VM virtual appliance deployed on-premise.
B. An inbound policy from the Azure FortiGate-VM virtual appliance.
C. An outbound policy from the Azure FortiGate-VM virtual appliance.
D. A FortiGate-VM virtual appliance deployed in Azure.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 3 You must create a High Availability deployment with two FortiWebs in Amazon
Web Services (AWS); each on
different Availability Zones (AZ) from the same region. At the same time, each
FortiWeb should be able to
deliver content from the Web servers of both of the AZs.
Which deployment would fulfill this requirement?
A. Configure the FortiWebs in Active-Active HA mode and use AWS Elastic Load
Balancer (ELB) for the internal Web servers.
B. Use AWS Elastic Load Balancer (ELB) for both the FortiWebs in standalone mode
and the internal Web servers in an ELB sandwich.
C. Configure the FortiWebs in Active-Active HA mode and use AWS Route 53 to load
balance the internal Web servers.
D. Use AWS Route 53 to load balance the FortiWebs in standalone mode and use AWS
Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) Peering to load balance the internal Web servers.
Description The NSE 7 Network Security Architect designation recognizes your advanced
skills ans ability to deploy, administer, and troubleshoot Fortinet security
solutions.
Who Should Attempt the NSE 7 Certification We recommend this course for network and security professionals who are
involved in the design, administration, and support of security infrastructures
using Fortinet solutions.
Certification To obtain certification, you must pass at least one Fortinet NSE 7 exam.
NSE 7 certification is valid for two years from the date of completion.
Fortinet NSE 7 - Secure Access 6.2 Exam series: NSE7_SAC-6.2
Number of questions: 30
Time allowed to complete: 60 minutes
Language: English and Japanese
Product version: FortiOS 6.2
Status: Available
QUESTION 1 Which step can be taken to ensure that only FortiAP devices receive IP
addresses from a DHCP server on FortiGate?
A. Change the interface addressing mode to FortiAP devices.
B. Create a reservation list in the DHCP server settings.
C. Configure a VCI string value of FortiAP in the DHCP server settings.
D. Use DHCP option 138 to assign IPs to FortiAP devices.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 Which two EAP methods can use MSCHAPV2 for client authentication? (Choose
two.)
A. PEAP
B. EAP-TTLS
C. EAP-TLS
D. EAP-GTC
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 2 Which two statements about the use of digital certificates are true? (Choose
two.)
A. An intermediate CA can sign server certificates.
B. An intermediate CA can sign another intermediate CA certificate.
C. The end entity's certificate can only be created by an intermediate CA.
D. An intermediate CA can validate the end entity certificate signed by another
intermediate CA.
The Fortinet NSE Certification Program The Fortinet Network Security Expert (NSE) program is an eight-level
training and certification program that is designed to provide interested
technical professionals with an independent validation of their network security
skills and experience. The NSE program includes a wide range of self-paced and
instructor-led courses, as well as practical, experiential exercises that
demonstrate mastery of complex network security concepts.
Network Security Associate The first Network Security Associate certification teaches you about the
threat landscape. This course provides you with a basic understanding of the
ever-increasing threat landscape that impacts networks today.
Description The Network Security Professional designation recognizes your ability to
install and manage the day-to-day configuration, monitoring, and operation of a
FortiGate device to support specific corporate network security policies.
Who Should Attempt the NSE 4 Certification We recommend this course for network and security professionals who are
involved in the day-to-day management, implementation, and administration of a
security infrastructure using FortiGate devices
Program Requirements You must successfully pass the NSE 4 certification exam:
Fortinet NSE 4 - FortiOS (FortiGate Security and FortiGate Infrastructure)
NSE 4 exams are available at Pearson VUE test centers.
To prepare for the certification exam, we recommend that you take the FortiGate
Security and FortiGate Infrastructure courses. The courses are optional.
About the NSE 4 Exam Exam series: NSE4_FGT-6.2
Number of questions: 70
Time allowed to complete: 120 minutes
Language: English and Japanese
Status: Available
QUESTION 1 In an HA cluster operating in active-active mode, which path is taken by the
SYN packet of an HTTP session that is offloaded to a secondary FortiGate?
A. Client > secondary FortiGate > primary FortiGate > web server
B. Client > primary FortiGate > secondary FortiGate > primary FortiGate > web
server
C. Client > primary FortiGate > secondary FortiGate > web server
D. Client > secondary FortiGate > web server
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 What three FortiGate components are tested during the hardware test? (Choose
three.)
A. CPU
B. Administrative access
C. HA heartbeat
D. Hard disk
E. Network interfaces
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 3 Consider a new IPsec deployment with the following criteria:
All satellite offices must connect to the two HQ sites.
The satellite offices do not need to communicate directly with other satellite
offices.
Backup VPN is not required.
The design should minimize the number of tunnels being configured.
Which topology should you use to satisfy all of the requirements?
A. Partial mesh
B. Redundant
C. Full mesh
D. Hub-and-spoke
Number of Questions Maximum of 90 questions Maximum of 110 questions
Type of Questions Performance-based and multiple-choice questions.
Length of Test 90 Minutes 165 minutes
Passing Score 750 (on a scale of 100-900) TBD
Recommended Experience 2-3 years in system administration
Languages English, Japanese English
Retirement Usually three years after launch On or before October 6, 2020
Testing Provider : Pearson VUE
Testing Centers : Online Testing
CompTIA Cloud+ validates the skills you need to maintain and optimize
cloud infrastructure services. Cloud+ covers the increased diversity of knowledge, skills and abilities
required of system administrators to validate what is necessary to perform
effectively in data center jobs.
CompTIA Cloud+ views cloud-based infrastructure services as an increasingly
important piece of an organization’s IT systems.
It is the only vendor-neutral, performance-based certification covering more
than a specific vendor or a single function — such as security or networking —
to help you better realize the return on investment of cloud infrastructure
services.
The beta exam for the new CompTIA Cloud+ (CV0-003) is now available! Be one of the first take the new exam and test from home for just $50!
Register here. We are looking for Network Engineers and Systems Administrators
with at least 2-3 years of work experience in IT systems administration or IT
networking and/or CompTIA Network+ and Server+ or equivalent knowledge to help
us build the new exam.
CompTIA Cloud+ is now compliant with ISO 17024 standards and approved by the US
DoD to meet directive 8570.01-M requirements.
Jobs That Use Cloud+ System Administrator
Systems Engineer
Network Administrator
Network Engineer
Cloud Developer
Cloud Specialist
Project Manager, Cloud
Computing Services
Cloud Engineer
Manager, Data Center SANs
Business Analyst, Cloud Computing
Exam Details Exam Codes CV0-002 CV1-003 (Beta)
Launch Date February 9, 2018 July 14, 2020
Exam Description CompTIA Cloud+ (CV0-002) reflects an emphasis on incorporating and managing
cloud technologies as part of broader systems operations. It assumes a candidate
will weave together solutions that meet specific business needs and work in a
variety of different industries.
It includes new technologies to support the changing cloud market as more
organizations depend on cloud-based technologies to run mission critical
systems, now that hybrid and multi-cloud have become the norm. CompTIA Cloud+
ensures IT infrastructure specialists develop multi-vendor skills related to
cloud computing, including the movement of applications, databases, workflows,
and systems to the cloud. By addressing system architecture, security,
deployment, operations, and automation, Cloud+ aims to prepare system
administrators to perform the tasks required of their job, not just to rely on a
narrow set of vendor-specific product features and functions.
Career growth continues to boom in the infrastructure space as more workers
telecommute and businesses move to off-premises cloud solutions. The new CompTIA
Cloud+ (CV1-003), which will be available in 2021, reflects these changes with
an increased focus on the skills needed to make the cloud more secure and
available. Here’s what you need to know about the new CompTIA Cloud+ and the
beta exam, available now.
How Is the New CompTIA Cloud+ Different?
While still covering the foundational aspects of cloud technology emphasized in
CompTIA Cloud+ (CV0-002), the refreshed offering expands in two important areas
– security and high-availability.
The new CompTIA Cloud+ covers in greater depth the skills and abilities needed
to secure the cloud, validating that candidates have the hands-on experience
needed to secure environments regardless of the vendor solution.
In addition to validating the technical security skills cloud engineers need,
the exam continues to highlight the importance of compliance requirements – a
key function in today’s ever-changing regulatory world.
The refreshed CompTIA Cloud+ (CV0-003) also includes an entire objective
dedicated to high-availability – the goal of ensuring around-the-clock access to
all your data and software as a service (SaaS) applications. This highlights the
move toward cloud-hosted solutions throughout enterprise and small-business.
CompTIA recognizes that in a work-from-home world, it is critical for remote
employees to have secure, uninterrupted access to data, applications and the
solutions that allow business to succeed. CompTIA Cloud+ validates the skills
and abilities that make this possible.
Overall, the CompTIA Cloud+ exam tests candidates in the following areas of
cloud computing: Cloud architecture and design
Securing the cloud
Automation and virtualization
Optimization of cloud environments
Disaster recovery
You can download the new exam objectives here.
The Importance of Multi-Vendor Cloud Skills
I heard from an IT industry vice president recently that mergers and
acquisitions were starting to “take off again.” The effect of this is that if a
large enterprise running Amazon Web Services (AWS) acquires two or three smaller
organizations running Microsoft Azure and Google Cloud, then cloud engineers
would need to understand not just the vendor platform, but the technical
underpinnings of the cloud itself so they could work between all the elements of
the full cloud stack.
Some enterprises might run multiple infrastructure as a service (IaaS) platforms
for years, requiring staff to be able to operate between the major platforms. IT
pros who have CompTIA Cloud+ understand the danger of vendor lock-in, and this
certification validates they have the skills and knowledge to work across
multi-vendor systems.
CompTIA Cloud+ is intended as a mid-career certification, for IT pros with 2 to
3 years of systems administration experience.
Cloud Smart and DoD Proven
CompTIA Cloud+ has been adopted by the U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) to
ensure that its personnel and contractors are appropriately trained. In February
2020, CompTIA Cloud+ met the DoD Manual 8570.01 requirements for those who work
with sensitive information and need to satisfy specific job requirements.
The DoD approved CompTIA Cloud+ for three vital workforce categories:
Information Assurance Manager Level I (IAM I)
Cybersecurity Service Provider Infrastructure Support (CSSP-IS)
CSSP Analyst (CSSP-A)
In addition to these workforce categories, CompTIA Cloud+ aligns with the U.S.
Government Cloud Smart initiative. The cloud is about creating continuously
updated, secure and highly available solutions – all of which are key components
of the new CompTIA Cloud+ exam and illustrate the need for a security-first
mindset that allows for flexible implementations of new technologies.
Take the CompTIA Cloud+ Beta Exam For a limited time, qualified candidates can register to take the newly
updated CompTIA Cloud+ (CV1-003) beta exam for the discounted price of $50 USD.
The beta exam will be available for a limited number of candidates, and the
formal exam release will occur in the second quarter of 2021. This marks the
first time ever that a CompTIA beta exam will be offered through online testing.
To take the CompTIA Cloud+ beta exam, you’ll need the following qualifications:
Systems administrators, network engineers and cloud engineers with two to three
years of hands-on experience
Familiarity with a major hypervisor
Hands-on experience using one of the major IaaS platforms
CompTIA Network+ and Server+ are recommended
Registration for the beta is available through Pearson VUE and can be found
using exam code CV1-003. Registration is now open and will be available for a
limited number of registrants. Be sure to register and take your exam as early
as possible so you don't miss out – the exam is expected to close by October
2020 but may close early if the spots are filled. You must login to your Pearson
VUE account in order to register for the beta exam.
QUESTION 1
A DevOps administrator is automating an existing software development workflow.
The administrator wants to ensure that prior to any new code going into
production, tests confirm the new code does not negatively impact existing
automation activities.
Which of the following testing techniques would be BEST to use?
A. Usability testing
B. Regression testing
C. Vulnerability testing
D. Penetration testing
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 A marketing team is using a SaaS-based service to send emails to large
groups of potential customers.
The internally managed CRM system is configured to generate a list of target
customers automatically on a weekly
basis, and then use that list to send emails to each customer as part of a
marketing campaign. Last week, the
first email campaign sent emails successfully to 3,000 potential customers. This
week, the email campaign
attempted to send out 50,000 emails, but only 10,000 were sent.
Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for not sending all the emails?
A. API request limit
B. Incorrect billing account
C. Misconfigured auto-scaling
D. Bandwidth limitation
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 A VDI administrator has received reports of poor application performance.
Which of the following should the administrator troubleshoot FIRST?
A. The network environment
B. Container resources
C. Client devices
D. Server resources
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 A systems administrator recently upgraded the processors in a web
application host.
Upon the next login, the administrator sees a new alert regarding the license
being out of compliance.
Which of the following licensing models is the application MOST likely using?
A. Per device
B. Per user
C. Core-based
D. Volume-based
Exam ID HPE0-V19
Exam type Proctored
Exam duration 1 hour 30 minutes
Exam length 55 questions
Passing score 63%
Delivery languages English, Japanese
Supporting resources These recommended resources help you prepare for the exam:
Creating HPE Real Time Analytics Solutions with SAP HANA, Rev. 20.21
Register for this Exam You need an HPE Learner ID and a Pearson VUE login and password.
No reference material is allowed at the testing site. This exam may contain beta
test items for experimental purposes.
During the exam, you can make comments about the exam items. We welcome these
comments as part of our continuous improvement process.
Exam description This exam tests the candidate's ability to display competency with HPE
solutions for SAP HANA as well as service offerings and deployment options in
order to architect solutions that can help achieve customers' business outcomes.
Ideal candidate for this exam This certification is targeted to solution architects who have a broad
understanding of SAP solutions and concepts, in order to architect and design a
SAP HANA solution as part of an overall SAP environment. Candidates typically
define business needs, propose, and may deploy, the solution.
Exam contents
This exam has 55 questions. Here are types of questions to expect:
Discrete Option Multiple Choice
Advice to help you take this exam
Complete the training and review all course materials and documents before you
take the exam.
Use HPE Press study guides and additional reference materials; study guides,
practice tests, and HPE books.
Exam items are based on expected knowledge acquired from job experience, an
expected level of industry standard knowledge, or other prerequisites (events,
supplemental materials, etc.).
Successful completion of the course or study materials alone, does not ensure
you will pass the exam.
What to Expect with Discrete Option Multiple Choice (DOMC) exams:
This exam uses the DOMC question format. It is quite different than traditional
multiple choice exams. It is designed to increase exam fairness, to protect exam
integrity, your exam scores and your time.
How is DOMC different? Instead of presenting all the answer options together at one time, DOMC
questions present answer options one at a time, at random
When an answer option is presented, you select either Yes or No to indicate if
the option is correct or not. This process repeats until the question concludes
You may see more than one correct option
You may receive as few as one option for each test question or several options
Once you move forward, you may not go back and change your response to a
previous option
We created an HPE sample test to help you practice using this DOMC test format.
During registration, you will be asked to confirm that you have completed the
HPE DOMC sample test and understand how this exam will perform.
Become acquainted with DOMC:
HPE DOMC sample test
DOMC FAQs
Be sure to complete the supporting resources and review all materials and
documents before you take the exam. Successful completion of the supporting
resources alone does not ensure you will pass the exam.
Objectives
This exam validates that you can:
Perform an analysis of customer SAP workloads to determine the most appropriate
deployment model(s), sizing, and related service offerings.
Articulate key differentiators for HPE solutions for SAP HANA
Percentage of Exam Sections/Objectives
20% Summarize the SAP Portfolio: Compare and contrast the SAP offerings
Know the SAP acronyms
Know the history of SAP portfolio
Differentiate the SAP workloads aligned to the customer's business processes
Articulate the strategic role of SAP HANA in the SAP portfolio
Recognize the different SAP processes and products for customers in various
industries
Explain SAP client server architecture
Explain the urgency to begin the S/4HANA journey
39% Know SAP HANA Architecture and Certification Requirements: Know the reasoning behind SAP HANA hardware certification and implications
Locate SAP HANA certification requirements
Use SAP tools
Use SAP HANA hardware directory, early-watch reports (EWA)
Identify general SAP HANA best practices for networking and storage
Define the SAP HANA system types
Explain SAP HANA high availability and disaster tolerant features
Explain virtualization and consolidation options for SAP HANA
Explain Data backup and recovery for SAP HANA options
41% Plan and Design HPE SAP HANA Solutions: Identify an appropriate sizing approach
Interpret SAP sizing results and determine hardware requirements
Explain HPE SAP HANA infrastructure solution options
Recommend HPE SAP HANA solution based on customer requirements
Differentiate HPE SAP HANA solution options
Apply the HPE sales and ordering process
Exam ID HPE0-A126P
Exam type Performance based
Exam duration 8 hours
Passing score 70%
Delivery languages English
Supporting resources These recommended resources help you prepare for the exam:
Aruba Advanced Network Design and Solutions, Rev. 20.22
Register for this Exam You need an HPE Learner ID and a Pearson VUE login and password.
Exam description This practical exam tests your ability to design a secure campus wired,
wireless, remote access and management solution for an enterprise mobility
project using Aruba OS (AOS) 8 and Aruba Switches OS CX. Candidates create
design solutions that include redundancy, authentication and integration with
existing infrastructure. Candidates will complete an IRIS BOM, IRIS network
diagram and a VRF diagram for RF planning. The candidate will also answer
customer questions.
Ideal candidate for this exam Ideal candidates are networking IT professionals with a minimum of three to
five years’ experience in designing complex enterprise-level mobile first
networks. Candidates should have familiarity with building a detailed bill of
materials using the Aruba Controller, Aruba switches, Access Point, Instant,
ClearPass and AirWave products for secure, guest and voice deployments.
Candidates are familiar with AOS 8, Airwave Visual RF Plan 8, Aruba Instant,
ClearPass, AirWave and Central management.
Exam contents Here are types of questions to expect:
Other - Performance Based
Advice to help you take this exam Complete the training and review all course materials and documents before
you take the exam.
Use HPE Press study guides and additional reference materials; study guides,
practice tests, and HPE books.
Exam items are based on expected knowledge acquired from job experience, an
expected level of industry standard knowledge, or other prerequisites (events,
supplemental materials, etc.).
Successful completion of the course or study materials alone, does not ensure
you will pass the exam.
Objectives
This exam validates that you can:
45% IRIS BOM Provide a detailed Bill of Materials (BOM) listing MM, controller models,
Aruba switches, line cards, transceivers, APs, AMs, SMs, Mesh APs, license types
and counts. Indicate the equipment per MDF/IDF closets. Specify the necessary
servers such as AirWave and ClearPass, Meridian with licensing specified for a
given scenario.
30% Essay Questions Answer typical customer questions on Aruba solutions including enterprise
Campus Design, Remote Access, VIA and RAP solutions, Aruba Instant and Cloud
based solutions, AirWave and Aruba Central management solutions and Meridian
features.
Provide a technical explanation of AP to Controller data-plane and control plane
communications, Controller Discovery Mechanisms and priorities, design of Aruba
mobility Solutions (Layer 2 and Layer 3 mobility). Switching features such as
VSF and stacking.
Provide detailed and comprehensive explanation of secure and guest Aruba WLAN
technologies such as AppRF, WIPS, RF Protect, and ClearPass. Additionally
explain the underlying dependencies, advantages and disadvantages of each
solution.
Explain QOS and voice prioritization technologies to optimize the network for
mobile and BYOD devices.
15% AirWave Visual RF Use the AirWave Visual RF Plan tool to create an RF design to meet the
customer requirements and Aruba best practices.
Move APs and AMs to the appropriate high density WLAN locations on a VisualRF
floor plan.
Create a Visual RF plan and export the RF as a customer deliverable on a given
customer floor plan.
10% IRIS Network Diagram Determine appropriate placement of Aruba equipment in IRIS topology diagram.
Place the proper equipment into the MDF/IDF groups for access, distribution,
core, or DMZ of the network diagram.
Make the connections between devices, switches to switch, switch to AP, MC, MM
and servers
Exam overview This exam tests your knowledge of wireless network design, including:
Site surveys
Wired and wireless infrastructure
Mobility
WLAN high availability
Exam Description The Designing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks v1.0 (ENWLSD 300-425) exam
is a 90-minute exam associated with the CCNP Enterprise and Cisco Certified
Specialist - Enterprise Wireless Design certifications. This exam certifies a
candidate's knowledge of wireless network design including site surveys, wired
and wireless infrastructure, mobility and WLAN high availability. The course,
Designing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks, helps candidates to prepare for
this exam.
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be
included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any
specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and
for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without
notice.
1.1 Collect design requirements and evaluate constraints 1.1.a Client density
1.1.b Real time applications
1.1.c AP type
1.1.d Deployment type (data, location, voice, video)
1.1.e Security
1.2 Describe material attenuation and its effect on wireless design
1.3 Perform and analyze a Layer 1 site survey
1.4 Perform a pre-deployment site survey
1.5 Perform a post deployment site survey
1.6 Perform a predictive site survey
1.7 Utilize planning tools and evaluate key network metrics (Ekahau, AirMagnet,
PI, Chanalyzer, Spectrum Analyzer)
2.1 Determine physical infrastructure requirements such as AP power, cabling,
switch port capacity, mounting, and grounding
2.2 Determine logical infrastructure requirements such as WLC/AP licensing
requirements based on the type of wireless architecture
2.3 Design radio management
2.3.a RRM
2.3.b RF profiles
2.3.c RxSOP
2.4 Apply design requirements for these types of wireless networks
2.4.a Data
2.4.b Voice and video
2.4.c Location
2.4.d Hyperlocation
2.5 Design high-density wireless networks and their associated components
(campus, lecture halls, conference rooms)
2.6 Design wireless bridging (mesh)
2.6.a Modes of operation
2.6.b Ethernet bridging
2.6.c WGB and roaming
3.1 Design mobility groups based on mobility roles
3.2 Optimize client roaming
3.3 Validate mobility tunneling for data and control path
4.1 Design high availability for controllers
4.1.a Network availability through LAG
4.1.b Stateful Switchover (SSO)
4.1.c Anchor controller priority and redundancy
4.2 Design high availability for APs
4.2.a AP prioritization
4.2.b Fall-back (assigning primary, secondary, and tertiary)
Exam ID HPE0-A121P
Exam type Performance based
Exam duration 8 hours
Passing score 70%
Delivery languages English
Supporting resources These recommended resources help you prepare for the exam:
Aruba Advanced Network Design and Solutions, Rev. 18.41
Register for this Exam You need an HPE Learner ID and an Aruba Learning Management System username
and password
The HPE6-A49 ACDX Written Exam is required to be passed before the practical
exam. Once the written is passed, you will only have 18 months to pass the ACDX
Practical Exam. Candidates who do not pass the ACDX Practical Exam within 18
months will have to retake the current ACDX Written Exam. HPE recommends that
you register for the ACDX Practical Exam within 12 months of passing the written
exam to ensure that you pass in the allotted 18-month timeframe.
Exam description This practical exam tests your ability to design a secure campus wired,
wireless, remote access and management solution for an enterprise mobility
project using Aruba OS (AOS) 8.3 and Aruba Switches OS 16.06. Candidates create
design solutions that include redundancy, WLAN SSIDs, user roles/policies, QoS
design, network security, authentication and integration with existing
infrastructure. Candidates will complete an IRIS BOM, IRIS network diagram and a
VRF diagram for RF planning.
Ideal candidate for this exam Ideal candidates are networking IT professionals with a minimum of three to
five years’ experience in designing complex enterprise-level mobile first
networks. Candidates should have familiarity with building a detailed bill of
materials using the Aruba Controller, Aruba switches, Access Point, Instant,
ClearPass and AirWave products for secure, guest and voice deployments.
Candidates are familiar with AOS 8.3, Airwave Visual RF Plan 8.7, Aruba Instant,
ClearPass, AirWave and Central management.
Exam contents Here are types of questions to expect:
Other - Performance Based
Advice to help you take this exam Complete the training and review all course materials and documents before
you take the exam.
Use HPE Press study guides and additional reference materials; study guides,
practice tests, and HPE books.
Exam items are based on expected knowledge acquired from job experience, an
expected level of industry standard knowledge, or other prerequisites (events,
supplemental materials, etc.).
Successful completion of the course or study materials alone, does not ensure
you will pass the exam.
Objectives
This exam validates that you can:
Percentage of Exam Sections/Objectives
45% IRIS BOM Provide a detailed Bill of Materials (BOM) listing MM, controller models,
Aruba switches, line cards, transceivers, APs, AMs, SMs, Mesh APs, license types
and counts. Indicate the equipment per MDF/IDF closets. Specify the necessary
servers such as AirWave and ClearPass, Meridian with licensing specified for a
given scenario.
Determine encryption and authentication including role based access control (RBAC)
requirements for a Secure or Guest WLAN to meet customer requirements and Aruba
best practices.
Design detailed Aruba firewall policies including aliases for a guest, voice and
secure WLAN to meet customer requirements.
30% Essay Questions Answer typical customer questions on Aruba solutions including enterprise
Campus Design, Remote Access, VIA and RAP solutions, Aruba Instant and Cloud
based solutions, AirWave and Aruba Central management solutions and Meridian
features.
Provide a technical explanation of AP to Controller data-plane and control plane
communications, Controller Discovery Mechanisms and priorities, design of Aruba
mobility Solutions (Layer 2 and Layer 3 mobility). Switching features such as
VSF and stacking.
Provide detailed and comprehensive explanation of secure and guest Aruba WLAN
technologies such as AppRF, WIPS, RF Protect, and ClearPass. Additionally
explain the underlying dependencies, advantages and disadvantages of each
solution.
Explain QOS and voice prioritization technologies to optimize the network for
mobile and BYOD devices.
15% AirWave Visual RF Use the AirWave Visual RF Plan tool to create an RF design to meet the
customer requirements and Aruba best practices.
Move APs and AMs to the appropriate high density WLAN locations on a VisualRF
floor plan.
Create a Visual RF plan and export the RF as a customer deliverable on a given
customer floor plan.
10% IRIS Network Diagram Determine appropriate placement of Aruba equipment in IRIS topology diagram.
Place the proper equipment into the MDF/IDF groups for access, distribution,
core, or DMZ of the network diagram.
Make the connections between devices, switches to switch, switch to AP, MC, MM
and servers
Candidates for this exam should have foundational knowledge of machine
learning (ML) and artificial intelligence (AI) concepts and related Microsoft
Azure services.
This exam is an opportunity to demonstrate knowledge of common ML and AI
workloads and how to implement them on Azure.
This exam is intended for candidates with both technical and non-technical
backgrounds. Data science and software engineering experience are not required;
however, some general programming knowledge or experience would be beneficial.
Azure AI Fundamentals can be used to prepare for other Azure role-based
certifications like Azure Data Scientist Associate or Azure AI Engineer
Associate, but it’s not a prerequisite for any of them.
Part of the requirements for: Microsoft Certified: Azure AI Fundamentals
Related exams: none
Important: See details
Go to Certification Dashboard
Exam AI-900: Microsoft Azure AI Fundamentals
Languages: English, Japanese, Chinese (Simplified), Korean, German, French,
Spanish
Retirement date: none
Prove that you can describe the following: AI workloads and considerations;
fundamental principles of machine learning on Azure; features of computer vision
workloads on Azure; features of Natural Language Processing (NLP) workloads on
Azure; and features of conversational AI workloads on Azure.
Skills measured Describe AI workloads and considerations (15-20%)
Describe fundamental principles of machine learning on Azure (30-35%)
Describe features of computer vision workloads on Azure (15-20%)
Describe features of Natural Language Processing (NLP) workloads on Azure
(15-20%)
Describe features of conversational AI workloads on Azure (15-20%)
Exam AI-900: Microsoft Azure AI Fundamentals – Skills Measured
Audience Profile Candidates for this exam should have foundational knowledge of machine
learning (ML) and artificial intelligence (AI) concepts and related Microsoft
Azure services.
This exam is an opportunity to demonstrate knowledge of common ML and AI
workloads and how to implement them on Azure.
This exam is intended for candidates with both technical and non-technical
backgrounds. Data science and software engineering experience are not required;
however, some general programming knowledge or experience would be beneficial.
Azure AI Fundamentals can be used to prepare for other Azure role-based
certifications like Azure Data Scientist Associate or Azure AI Engineer
Associate, but it is not a prerequisite for any of them.
Skills Measured NOTE: The bullets that appear below each of the skills measured are intended
to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is not definitive or
exhaustive.
NOTE: In most cases, exams do NOT cover preview features, and some features will
only be added to an exam when they are GA (General Availability).
Describe Artificial Intelligence workloads and considerations (15-20%) Identify features of common AI workloads
. identify prediction/forecasting workloads
. identify features of anomaly detection workloads
. identify computer vision workloads
. identify natural language processing or knowledge mining workloads
. identify conversational AI workloads
Identify guiding principles for responsible AI . describe considerations for fairness in an AI solution
. describe considerations for reliability and safety in an AI solution
. describe considerations for privacy and security in an AI solution
. describe considerations for inclusiveness in an AI solution
. describe considerations for transparency in an AI solution
. describe considerations for accountability in an AI solution
Describe fundamental principles of machine learning on Azure (30-35%) Identify common machine learning types
. identify regression machine learning scenarios
. identify classification machine learning scenarios
. identify clustering machine learning scenarios
Describe core machine learning concepts . identify features and labels in a dataset for machine learning
. describe how training and validation datasets are used in machine learning
. describe how machine learning algorithms are used for model training
. select and interpret model evaluation metrics for classification and
regression
Identify core tasks in creating a machine learning solution . describe common features of data ingestion and preparation
. describe common features of feature selection and engineering
. describe common features of model training and evaluation
. describe common features of model deployment and management
Describe capabilities of no-code machine learning with Azure Machine
Learning: . automated Machine Learning tool
. azure Machine Learning designer
Describe features of computer vision workloads on Azure (15-20%)
Identify common types of computer vision solution: . identify features of image classification solutions
. identify features of object detection solutions
. identify features of semantic segmentation solutions
. identify features of optical character recognition solutions
. identify features of facial detection, recognition, and analysis solutions
Identify Azure tools and services for computer vision tasks . identify capabilities of the Computer Vision service
. identify capabilities of the Custom Vision service
. identify capabilities of the Face service
. identify capabilities of the Form Recognizer service
Describe features of Natural Language Processing (NLP) workloads on Azure
(15-20%)
Identify features of common NLP Workload Scenarios . identify features and uses for key phrase extraction
. identify features and uses for entity recognition
. identify features and uses for sentiment analysis
. identify features and uses for language modeling
. identify features and uses for speech recognition and synthesis
. identify features and uses for translation
Identify Azure tools and services for NLP workloads . identify capabilities of the Text Analytics service
. identify capabilities of the Language Understanding Intelligence Service
(LUIS)
. identify capabilities of the Speech service
. identify capabilities of the Text Translator service
Describe features of conversational AI workloads on Azure (15-20%)
Identify common use cases for conversational AI . identify features and uses for webchat bots
. identify features and uses for telephone voice menus
. identify features and uses for personal digital assistants
Identify Azure services for conversational AI . identify capabilities of the QnA Maker service
. identify capabilities of the Bot Framework
QUESTION 1 A company employs a team of customer service agents to provide telephone and
email support to customers.
The company develops a webchat bot to provide automated answers to common
customer queries.
Which business benefit should the company expect as a result of creating the
webchat bot solution?
A. increased sales
B. a reduced workload for the customer service agents
C. improved product reliability
Correct Answer: B
Section: Describe Artificial Intelligence workloads and considerations
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2 For a machine learning progress, how should you split data for training and
evaluation?
A. Use features for training and labels for evaluation.
B. Randomly split the data into rows for training and rows for evaluation.
C. Use labels for training and features for evaluation.
D. Randomly split the data into columns for training and columns for evaluation.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 You build a machine learning model by using the automated machine learning
user interface (UI).
You need to ensure that the model meets the Microsoft transparency principle for
responsible AI.
What should you do?
A. Set Validation type to Auto.
B. Enable Explain best model.
C. Set Primary metric to accuracy.
D. Set Max concurrent iterations to 0.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 You are designing an AI system that empowers everyone, including people who
have hearing, visual, and other impairments.
This is an example of which Microsoft guiding principle for responsible AI?
A. fairness
B. inclusiveness
C. reliability and safety
D. accountability
Number of questions: 61
Number of questions to pass: 45
Time allowed: 90 mins
Status: Live
This intermediate-level exam is for those that are self-sufficient in planning,
installing, and configuring an IBM FileNet P8 V5.5.3 environment.
This exam consists of four sections described below. For more detail, please see
the study guide on the Exam Preparation tab.
Section 1: Planning, Preparation, and Security 25% Identify requirements for high availability, architecture, and supported
environments. (including network ports, software compatibility report, fix pack
compatibility report)
Identify the user accounts required for FileNet P8 platform.
Identify database requirements.
Identify LDAP requirements.
Define storage options for object stores.
Define/Identify application server configuration requirements.
Identify basic performance settings.
Section 2: Installation and Upgrade 30% Install FileNet P8 in either a single-server or multi-server environment.
Utilize the Configuration Manager tool.
Upgrade FileNet P8 in either a single-server or multi-server environment.
Section 3: Configuration 25% Define the proper procedures for initial startup tasks.
Create and configure domains, object stores, database storage areas, file
storage areas, workflow systems, and fixed content devices.
Configure Content Search Services.
Differentiate between various CFS configurations.
Configure SSL connections to CPE.
Configure client application connections to CPE (Content Platform Engine).
Configure CPE in an SSO environment.
Section 4: Troubleshooting and System Validation 20% Identify tools to monitor upgrade status (AutomaticUpgradeStatus, log
files).
Identify and use log files for troubleshooting.
Identify and use the tools for system validation.
Number of questions: 69
Number of questions to pass: 42
Time allowed: 90 mins
Status: Live
This exam consists of 5 sections described below.
Section 1: Planning Review the customer's environment
Determine client backup methodology based on client data
Explain current IBM Spectrum Protect continuous development cycle
Discuss the different licensing models
Explain Cloud Tiering: Limitations, Troubleshooting, and Possible Future
Enhancements
Section 2: Installation Install the IBM Spectrum Protect server software and create the server
instance +$Register the IBM Spectrum Protect server license
Install administrative client command line
Install and configure the backup-archive client
Define storage hardware devices
Install and configure IBM Spectrum Protect Operations Center
Install and configure IBM Spectrum Protect HSM or IBM Spectrum Protect for Space
Management on the Spectrum Protect Backup/Archive clients. (Windows and UNIX)
Install and configure Spectrum Protect for Virtual Environments
Install and configure the IBM Spectrum Protect Snapshot solution as provided
within the IBM Spectrum Storage software suite
Set up user authentication in the IBM Spectrum Protect server using LDAP
Set up secure communications
Install and configure Spectrum Protect for Mail and Databases
Section 3: Configuration Define Tape Libraries
Set up traditional storage pools
Set up directory container storage
Set up cloud container storage pools
Define a copy pool/active data pool
Set up server-to-server communications
Create Server pair to allow Storage pool protection and node replication
Set up Policies
Define Client Schedules
Set up client-side data deduplication
Identify, configure and control the tape volume lifecycle in IBM Spectrum
Protect
Install, configure and manage the IBM Spectrum Protect server/client in a
clustered environment
Section 4: Administration Define storage pool reclamation, migration, back up and collocation
Define data expiration
Automate administrative processes by admin scheduling and IBM Spectrum Protect
scripting
Set up levels of administrative privileges
Back up the IBM Spectrum Protect database
Manage client options and client option sets
Establish include/exclude lists
Set up the Client Acceptor Daemon (CAD)
Configure and manage the IBM Spectrum Protect options related to the server
groups +$Configure the IBM Spectrum Protect server and client options to enable
the possibility to restore or retrieve files from one workstation to another
Set up NAS backups using NDMP, SMTP (SnapMirror) or SnapDiff
Manage container storage pools
Manage Alerts
Transfer data to another tape technology
Set up custom reports in the Operations Center
Set up server options
Convert traditional pools to container storage
Configure Cloud Tiering using the Command Line or the Operations Center
Describe Operations Center Security Dashboard Updates
Section 5: Problem Determination Monitor alerts in the Operations Center
Perform problem determination on the server
Perform library, volume, and container audits to identify problems
Repair problems in libraries, volumes, and containers
Identify environment bottlenecks (network, storage, SAN, memory, server
hardware)
Perform problem determination on the Spectrum Protect server database
Perform problem determination on the client
Configure and use Always ON Server Monitor
Monitor replication status using replication failure summary Actualkey IBM
C1000-032 exam pdf,
Certkingdom IBM
C1000-032 PDF Best
IBM C1000-032 Certification,
IBM C1000-032 Training
at certkingdom.com
Exam ID HPE6-A71
Exam type Proctored
Exam duration 1 hour 30 minutes
Exam length 60 questions
Passing score 65%
Delivery languages Japanese, English, Latin American Spanish
Supporting resources These recommended resources help you prepare for the exam:
Implementing Aruba Mobility, Rev. 19.21
Additional study materials
Exam description This exam tests your skills with the WLAN design, deployment, and
troubleshooting of Aruba Mobile First Network Solutions in complex highly
available campus and branch environments. It also tests your ability to
configure specialized applications, management, and security requirements for a
WLAN such as UCC Voice and advanced security features.
Ideal candidate for this exam
Typical candidates for this exam are networking IT professionals with a minimum
of two years of advanced-level implementation experience with Aruba WLAN
solutions and a minimum of three years of experience with wired LAN
infrastructure and switching and routing technologies.
Exam contents
This exam has 60 questions.
Advice to help you take this exam
Complete the training and review all course materials and documents before you
take the exam.
Use HPE Press study guides and additional reference materials; study guides,
practice tests, and HPE books.
Exam items are based on expected knowledge acquired from job experience, an
expected level of industry standard knowledge, or other prerequisites (events,
supplemental materials, etc.).
Successful completion of the course or study materials alone, does not ensure
you will pass the exam.
Objectives This exam validates that you can:
Percentage of Exam Sections/Objectives
20% Integrate and implement Aruba Mobile First architecture components and
explain their uses. Integrate components of the Aruba Mobile First Architecture.
Differentiate between standalone mode and Master Controller Mode (MCM) features
and recommend use cases.
Differentiate the use of packet forwarding modes (tunnel, decrypt-tunnel,
split-tunnel, and bridge).
Differentiate between redundancy methods, and describe the benefits of L2 and L3
clustering.
Explain Remote Access architectures and how to integrate the architectures.
Describe and differentiate advanced licensing features.
20% Configure and validate Aruba WLAN secure employee and guest solutions. • Configure Remote Access with Aruba Solutions such as RAP and VIA.
• Configure and deploy redundant controller solutions based upon a given design.
• Configure a Mesh WLAN.
38% Implement advanced services and security. • Enable multicast DNS features to support discovery across VLAN boundaries.
• Configure role derivation, and explain and implement advanced role features.
• Configure an AAA server profile for a user or administrative access.
• Implement Mobility Infrastructure hardening features.
• Explain Clarity features and functions.
• Implement Voice WLAN based upon a given design.
• Configure primary zones and data zones to support MultiZone AP.
• Implement mobility (roaming) in an Aruba wireless environment.
• Implement tunneled node to secure ArubaOS switches.
10% Manage and monitor Aruba solutions. • Use AirWave to monitor an Aruba Mobility Master and Mobility Controller.
• Perform maintenance upgrades and operational maintenance.
12% Troubleshoot Aruba WLAN solutions. • Troubleshoot controller communication.
• Troubleshoot the WLAN.
• Troubleshoot Remote Access.
• Troubleshoot issues related to services and security.
• Troubleshoot role-based access, per-port based security and Airmatch.
QUESTION 1 An administrator deploys an AP at a branch office. The branch office has a
private WAN circuit that provides
connectivity to a corporate office controller. An Ethernet port on the AP is
connected to a network storage
device that contains sensitive information. The administrator is concerned about
sending this traffic in cleartext across the private WAN circuit.
What can the administrator do to prevent this problem?
A. Enable IPSec encryption on the AP's wired ports.
B. Convert the campus AP into a RAP.
C. Redirect the wired port traffic to an AP-to-controller GRE tunnel.
D. Enable AP encryption for wired ports.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 An administrator needs to modify a VAP used for a branch office RAP. The
VAP's operating mode is currently
defined as backup and uses tunnel mode forwarding. The administrator wants to
implement split-tunnel forwarding mode in the VAP.
Which WLAN operating mode must the administrator define for the VAP before the
tunnel forwarding mode can be changed to split-tunnel?
A. Trusted
B. Always
C. Persistent
D. Standard
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 An administrator creates service-based policies for AirGroup on the Mobility
Master (MM). The administrator can define location-based policy limits based on
which information?
A. controller names, controller groups, and controller Fully Qualified Domain
Names (FQDNs)
B. AP names, AP groups, controller names, and controller groups
C. AP Fully Qualified Location Names (FQLNs) and controller Fully Qualified
Domain Names (FQDNs)
D. AP names, AP groups, and AP Fully Qualified Location Names (FQLNs)
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 An administrator supports a RAP at a branch office. A user's device that is
attached to the Ethernet port is assigned an 802.1X AAA policy and is configured
for tunneled node.
How is the user's traffic transmitted to the corporate office?
A. It is not encapsulated by GRE and not protected with IPSec.
B. It is encapsulated by GRE and protected with IPSec.
C. It is not encapsulated by GRE but is protected with IPSec.
D. It is encapsulated by GRE and not protected with IPSec.
Description MuleSoft Certified Platform Architect - Level 1A MuleSoft Certified Platform
Architect should be able to define and be responsible for an organization’s
Anypoint Platform strategy. The MCPA – Level 1 exam validates that an architect
has the required knowledge and skills to direct the emergence of an effective
application network out of individual integration solutions following API-led
connectivity across an organization using Anypoint Platform. S/he should be able
to:
Optimize and shape the Anypoint Platform deployment in the specific
organizational context, working with business, infrastructure, InfoSec, and
other teams.
Define how Anypoint Platform is used in conjunction with other tools and
applications in the organization.
Define the usage of Anypoint Platform and the corresponding organizational and
process changes needed to help the Platform be sustainable.
Provide guidance and drive creation of standards, reusable assets, and
automation required for scale and multi-LOB adoption.
A downloadable data sheet for the exam can be found here. Format Format: Multiple-choice, closed book, proctored online or in a
testing center
Length: 58 questions
Duration: 120 minutes (2 hours)
Pass score: 70%
Language: English
The exam can be taken a maximum of 5 times, with a 24 hour wait between each
attempt.
Cost $375 The exam can be purchased with one of the following. Each includes a
coupon for one free retake.
1.5 Flexible Training Credits (FTC) A voucher obtained by attending the instructor-led Anypoint Platform
Architecture: Application Networks course
Additional retakes (attempts 3 to 5) are $250 or 1 FTC and do not come with a
free retake.
Validity
The certification expires two years from the date of passing.
Preparation
The best preparation for the exam is to take the instructor-led Anypoint
Platform Architecture: Application Networks course. Candidates should be
familiar with all of the content in the course and be able to apply the
concepts.
The following resources are available to assist in a candidate’s preparation:
Instructor-led training: Anypoint Platform Architecture: Application Networks
Recommended as the most effective and efficient method of preparation 3-day
class
Private and public classes available
Onsite and online classes available
Includes a certification voucher for this exam
Practice quiz 20+ multiple-choice questions
Comparable difficulty to the proctored exam
Topics The exam validates that the candidate can perform the following tasks.
Explaining Application Network Basics Explain MuleSoft’s proposal for closing the IT delivery gap
Describe the role and characteristics of the "modern API"
Define and describe the benefits of API-led connectivity and application
networks
Define outcome-based delivery (OBD)
Correctly use the terms API, API implementation, API client, API consumer, and
API invocation
Describe the capabilities and high-level components of Anypoint Platform
ARC:NET Module 1
ARC:NET Module 2
Establishing Organizational and Platform Foundations Describe the purpose and roles of a C4E
Identify KPIs to measure the success of a C4E
Given specific organizational requirements, preferences, and constraints,
identify all suitable Anypoint Platform deployment options
Select Anypoint Platform identity management vs client management for the
correct purpose
ARC:NET Module 2
ARC:NET Module 3
Designing APIs and API Interactions Break down functional requirements into business-aligned APIs with effective
granularity
Given a set of APIs and specific preferences and organizational characteristics,
recommend the use of an Enterprise Data Model or Bounded Context Data Models
Identify changes to an API that would require or not require a major version
increment
When asynchronous execution of API invocations is needed, select when to
appropriately use polling or callbacks
Identify idempotent HTTP methods and HTTP-native support for optimistic
concurrency
Describe the creation and publication of reusable API-related assets using RAML
and Anypoint Platform components
ARC:NET Module 4
ARC:NET Module 6
Bounded Context
Why You Should Avoid a CDM
Canonical Data Models & Microservices
HTTP/1.1: Semantics and Content
HTTP/1.1: Caching
Semantic Versioning 2.0.0
Semantic versioning of REST APIs?
Following API-Led Connectivity
Identify appropriate APIs to implement a business process and assign them to
layers of API-led connectivity
Assign APIs to layers according to ownership, functional focus, and rate of
change
Given specific requirements and organizational characteristics, recommend the
most appropriate approach relating the API data model of System APIs to that of
their backend system
Governing APIs on Anypoint Platform Given specific preferences and constraints, select API policy enforcement
with or without API proxies
Select appropriate API policies to enforce non-functional constraints on API
invocations
Given an API policy with specific characteristics, identify any change required
in the corresponding RAML definition
Given a layer of API-led connectivity, identify API policies that are typically
applied to that layer and the scenarios needing custom policies
Identify which types of APIs and other remote interfaces are or are not amenable
to management by API Manager
ARC:NET Module 5
Controlling Access to APIs
Describe when and how to pass client ID and secret to an API Describe when and
how to pass client ID and secret to an API Describe when and how to pass client
ID and secret to an API
Explain how to register an API client for access to an API version
ARC:NET Module 5
Delivering APIs Describe the automation capabilities of Anypoint Platform for DevOps, CI/CD,
and testing
Compare unit and integration tests and specify where MUnit is best employed
Explain how to use autodiscovery to link an API implementation to an API
instance managed with API Manager
Specify how and when to promote APIs with API Manager
Identify when redeployment of API implementations is necessary
Deploying Mule Applications to CloudHub
Describe the fundamentals of deployments, networking, and routing on CloudHub
Select CloudHub worker sizes and configuration as appropriate
Describe the scenarios for which Object Store should be used with CloudHub
ARC:NET Module 7
Architecting Performant and Resilient APIs Identify the factors involved in scaling API performance
Identify the differences between the CloudHub Shared and Dedicated Load
Balancers
Identify single points of failure in typical CloudHub usage
Select strategies that help API clients guard against failures in API
invocations
ARC:NET Module 7
ARC:NET Module 9
HYSTRIX Defend Your App
Let’s talk about Resilience
Eclipse MicroProfile Fault Tolerance
Monitoring and Analyzing Application Networks Identify the components of Anypoint Platform that generate data for
monitoring and alerting
Describe the metrics collected by Anypoint Platform on the level of API
invocations
Describe and select between the options for performing API analytics within and
outside of Anypoint Platform
Specify alerts to define for key metrics of API invocations for all layers of
API-led connectivity
Specify alerts to define for API implementations
ARC:NET Module 10
Delivery methods
The exam is administered via the Kryterion Webassessor testing platform. The
exam can be taken in-person at a testing center or online using a web camera.
In-person at a Kryterion Testing Center:
Over 1000 locations worldwide
Onsite instructions
Test-taker guide
Online using the Kryterion Webassessor testing platform:
Requires a webcam - a laptop webcam can be used, an external camera is not
required
Requires internet connectivity with 1 Mbps upload, 1 Mbps download, jitter
<50ms, ping <200ms
Check your internet speed and reliability
Note: Some candidates are expelled from the exam for an unstable connection even
after checking reliability with the tool. If you think your connection could
potentially be unreliable, we strongly recommend scheduling your exam at a test
center.
Online instructions
Test-taker guide
Registration To register for the exam:
Go to Webassessor.
Create a user profile.
Log in.
Select Register for an Exam.
Select the MuleSoft Certified Platform Architect – Level 1 exam.
Select either the Online Proctoring Option or the Kryterion Test Center option.
On the payment screen, select to pay by credit card or enter a voucher/coupon
code.
Note: A fee applies if an exam is cancelled or rescheduled within 72 hours of
its scheduled time, even if the exam was purchased with a voucher. QUESTION 1
What API policy would LEAST likely be applied to a Process API?
A. Custom circuit breaker
B. Client ID enforcement
C. Rate limiting
D. JSON threat protection
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 What is a key performance indicator (KPI) that measures the success of a
typical C4E that is immediately apparent in responses from the Anypoint Platform
APIs?
A. The number of production outage incidents reported in the last 24 hours
B. The number of API implementations that have a publicly accessible HTTP
endpoint and are being managed by Anypoint Platform
C. The fraction of API implementations deployed manually relative to those
deployed using a CI/CD tool
D. The number of API specifications in RAML or OAS format published to Anypoint
Exchange
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 An organization is implementing a Quote of the Day API that caches today's
quote.
What scenario can use the CloudHub Object Store via the Object Store connector
to persist the cache's state?
A. When there are three CloudHub deployments of the API implementation to three
separate CloudHub regions that must share the cache state.
B. When there are two CloudHub deployments of the API implementation by two
Anypoint Platform business groups to the same CloudHub region that must share
the cache state.
C. When there is one deployment of the API implementation to CloudHub and
another deployment to a customer-hosted Mule runtime that must share the cache
state.
D. When there is one CloudHub deployment of the API implementation to three
CloudHub workers that must share the cache state.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 What condition requires using a CloudHub Dedicated Load Balancer?
A. When cross-region load balancing is required between separate deployments of
the same Mule application
B. When custom DNS names are required for API implementations deployed to
customer-hosted Mule runtimes
C. When API invocations across multiple CloudHub workers must be load balanced
D. When server-side load-balanced TLS mutual authentication is required between
API implementations and API clients
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 What do the API invocation metrics provided by Anypoint Platform provide?
A. ROI metrics from APIs that can be directly shared with business users
B. Measurements of the effectiveness of the application network based on the
level of reuse
C. Data on past API invocations to help identify anomalies and usage patterns
across various APIs
D. Proactive identification of likely future policy violations that exceed a
given threat threshold
About the Salesforce Platform App Builder Credential The Salesforce Platform App Builder credential is designed for individuals
who would like to demonstrate their skills and knowledge in designing, building,
and deploying custom applications using the declarative customization
capabilities of the Lightning Platform. The candidate can create, manage, and
update data models, application security, business logic, and process
automation.
Here are some examples of the concepts you should understand to pass the exam:
How to design the data model, user interface, business logic, and security for
custom applications
The Salesforce Platform App Builder credential is intended for an individual who
has experience developing custom applications on the Lightning Platform,
including practical application of the skills and concepts noted in the exam
objectives below.
The Salesforce Platform App Builder generally has 6 months to 1 year of
experience building applications on the Lightning Platform and/or on a similar
technology platform.
The Salesforce Platform App Builder candidate has the experience, skills, and
knowledge outlined below:
Familiarity with the capabilities of the Lightning Platform
Awareness of Salesforce license types and related considerations
Ability to design applications to support business processes and reporting
requirements
Familiarity with the social and mobile capabilities of the platform; accustomed
to using and optimizing business applications on a mobile device
Familiarity with the Salesforce development environments and the options
available to deploy applications and manage changes on the Lightning Platform
Study of the resources listed in this exam guide and the additional required
study materials provided by Salesforce
A candidate for this exam is not expected to be able to administer Sales Cloud
or Service Cloud, have programmatic development experience (Apex, Visualforce,
etc.), design custom interfaces using Visualforce, or design custom Lightning
components using Apex or JavaScript.
Purpose of this Exam Guide
This exam guide is designed to help you evaluate if you are ready to
successfully complete the Salesforce Platform App Builder exam. This guide
provides information about the target audience for the certification exam,
recommended training and documentation, and a complete list of exam
objectives—all with the intent of helping you achieve a passing score.
Salesforce highly recommends a combination of on-the-job experience, course
attendance, and self-study to maximize your chances of passing the exam.
About the Exam
Read on for details about the Salesforce Platform App Builder exam.
Registration fee: USD 200, plus applicable taxes as required per local law
Retake fee: USD 100, plus applicable taxes as required per local law
Delivery options: Proctored exam delivered onsite at a testing center or in an
online proctored environment. Click here for information on scheduling an exam.
References: No hard-copy or online materials may be referenced during the exam.
As preparation for this exam, we recommend a combination of hands-on experience,
training course completion, Trailhead trails, and self-study in the areas listed
in the Exam Outline section of this exam guide.
The self-study materials recommended for this exam include:
Trailmix: Prepare for Your Salesforce Platform App Builder Credential
Superbadge: Security Specialist
Superbadge: Process Automation Specialist
Superbadge: App Customization Specialist
To enroll in instructor-led courses and launch online training from your
Salesforce application, click the Help & Training link in the upper right corner
of the screen (requires login) and search for the desired courses. Non-Salesforce
customers can register for instructor-led courses here.
Instructor-Led Training recommended for this exam:
Declarative Development for Platform App Builders in Lightning Experience (DEX
403)
Certification Preparation for Platform App Builder (CRT 402)
To review online Documentation, Tip Sheets, and User Guides, search for the
topics listed in the Exam Outline section of this guide and study the
information related to those topics. Documentation, Tip Sheets, and User Guides
can also be accessed through Help & Training.
Exam Outline
The Salesforce Platform App Builder exam measures a candidate’s knowledge and
skills related to the following objectives. A candidate should have hands-on
experience developing custom applications on the Lightning Platform and have
demonstrated the application of each of the features/functions below.
Salesforce Fundamentals: 8%
Describe the capabilities of the core CRM objects in the Salesforce schema.
Given a scenario, identify the boundaries of declarative customization and the
use cases for programmatic customization.
Identify common scenarios for extending an org using the AppExchange.
Data Modeling and Management: 20% Given a scenario, determine the appropriate data model.
Describe the capabilities of the various relationship types and the implications
of each on record access, user interface, and reporting.
Identify the considerations when changing a field's type.
Given a set of requirements, identify the considerations and select the
appropriate field type.
Describe the capabilities and considerations of the schema builder.
Describe the options and considerations when importing and exporting data.
Describe the capabilities of and use cases for external objects.
Security: 10%
Describe the features and capabilities available to restrict and extend object,
record, and field access.
Given a set of business requirements, determine the appropriate sharing
solution.
Business Logic and Process Automation: 27% Describe the capabilities of and use cases for record types.
Describe the capabilities of and use cases for formula fields.
Describe the capabilities of, use cases for, and implications of roll-up summary
fields.
Describe the capabilities of and use cases for validation rules.
Describe the capabilities of and use cases for approval processes.
Describe the capabilities of and use cases for workflow, Flow, and Process
Builder.
Given a set of business requirements, recommend a solution to automate business
processes.
Describe the ramifications of field updates and the potential for recursion.
Social: 3% Describe the capabilities of and use cases for social features.
User Interface: 14% Describe the user interface customization options.
Describe the capabilities of and use cases for custom buttons, links, and
actions.
Describe the declarative options available for incorporating Lightning
Components in an application.
Given a scenario, determine the appropriate user interface design.
Reporting: 5% Describe the features and capabilities available when creating reports,
report types, and dashboards.
Mobile: 5% Describe the declarative customization options available for the Salesforce
mobile application user interface.
Given a set of requirements, determine the appropriate global and
object-specific actions and action layouts to optimize the Salesforce mobile
application user experience.
App Development: 8%
Describe the key milestones and considerations when managing the application
lifecycle.
Describe the differences between and considerations when using the various types
of sandboxes.
Describe the capabilities of and considerations when using change sets.
Describe the use cases of and considerations when using unmanaged packages.
Given a scenario, determine the appropriate deployment plan.
Maintaining Your Salesforce Certification One of the benefits of holding a Salesforce credential is always being
up-to-date on new product releases (updates). As such, you will be required to
complete the Platform App Builder certification maintenance modules on Trailhead
three times a year.
Don’t let your hard-earned credential expire! If you do not complete all
maintenance requirements by the due date, your credential will expire.
Bookmark these useful resources for maintaining your credentials:
Overall Maintenance Requirements
Maintenance Exam Due Dates
Verify Your Certification Status
Certification Expiration Details
QUESTION 1 Universal Containers manages internal projects by department using a custom
object called Projects. Only
employees in the project’s respective department should have view access to all
of the department’s project
records. If an employee changes job roles and moves to another department, the
employee should no longer
have access to the projects within their former department.
Which two options will meet these requirements assuming the organization-wide
default for Projects is set to Private? (Choose two.)
A. Create a criteria-based sharing rule using the Project’s department that
grants access to users by profiles.
B. Create a criteria-based sharing rule using the Project’s department that
grants access to users by permission sets.
C. Create a criteria-based sharing rule using the Project’s department that
grants access to users by roles.
D. Create a criteria-based sharing rule using the Project’s department that
grants access to users by public groups.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 2 Universal Containers has a customer base where many customers have the same
or similar company names.
Which functionality should be configured to improve an end user’s search
experience? (Choose two.)
A. Update the account search layouts search filter fields.
B. Update the account search layouts accounts tab columns displayed.
C. Update the account search layouts search results columns displayed.
D. Update the account search layouts list view filter settings.
Correct Answer: B,C
QUESTION 3 An app builder creates an Account validation rule on the Industry field that
will throw an error if the length of
the field is longer than 6 characters. Another app builder creates a workflow
with a field update that sets the
Industry field to Technology whenever the Billing City field is set to San
Francisco.
What will happen the next time a sales person saves an Account with a Billing
City of San Francisco?
A. The record will save and the Industry field will change to Technology.
B. The record will not save and no error message will be displayed.
C. The record will not save the validation rule’s error message will be
displayed.
D. The record will save but the Industry field will not change to Territory.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 What is a true statement when deleting a dashboard?
A. Deleting a dashboard also deletes the components within it. It does not
delete the custom reports used by the components.
B. Deleting a dashboard does not move the dashboard to the Recycle Bin and
therefore the dashboard cannot be recovered.
C. Deleting a dashboard also deletes the components within it as well as the
custom reports used by the components.
D. Deleting a dashboard requires a user to first edit the components to remove
the underlying reports.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 A junction object has two Master-Detail relationships, a primary and a
secondary master object.
What happens to a junction object record when both associated master records are
deleted?
A. The junction object record is permanently deleted and can’t be restored.
B. The delete operation cannot be performed on both master records.
C. The delete operation is not allowed with Roll-up summary fields defined.
D. The junction object records is deleted and placed in the recycle bin.
