About the Salesforce Platform App Builder Credential The Salesforce Platform App Builder credential is designed for individuals
who would like to demonstrate their skills and knowledge in designing, building,
and deploying custom applications using the declarative customization
capabilities of the Lightning Platform. The candidate can create, manage, and
update data models, application security, business logic, and process
automation.
Here are some examples of the concepts you should understand to pass the exam:
How to design the data model, user interface, business logic, and security for
custom applications
The Salesforce Platform App Builder credential is intended for an individual who
has experience developing custom applications on the Lightning Platform,
including practical application of the skills and concepts noted in the exam
objectives below.
The Salesforce Platform App Builder generally has 6 months to 1 year of
experience building applications on the Lightning Platform and/or on a similar
technology platform.
The Salesforce Platform App Builder candidate has the experience, skills, and
knowledge outlined below:
Familiarity with the capabilities of the Lightning Platform
Awareness of Salesforce license types and related considerations
Ability to design applications to support business processes and reporting
requirements
Familiarity with the social and mobile capabilities of the platform; accustomed
to using and optimizing business applications on a mobile device
Familiarity with the Salesforce development environments and the options
available to deploy applications and manage changes on the Lightning Platform
Study of the resources listed in this exam guide and the additional required
study materials provided by Salesforce
A candidate for this exam is not expected to be able to administer Sales Cloud
or Service Cloud, have programmatic development experience (Apex, Visualforce,
etc.), design custom interfaces using Visualforce, or design custom Lightning
components using Apex or JavaScript.
Purpose of this Exam Guide
This exam guide is designed to help you evaluate if you are ready to
successfully complete the Salesforce Platform App Builder exam. This guide
provides information about the target audience for the certification exam,
recommended training and documentation, and a complete list of exam
objectives—all with the intent of helping you achieve a passing score.
Salesforce highly recommends a combination of on-the-job experience, course
attendance, and self-study to maximize your chances of passing the exam.
About the Exam
Read on for details about the Salesforce Platform App Builder exam.
Registration fee: USD 200, plus applicable taxes as required per local law
Retake fee: USD 100, plus applicable taxes as required per local law
Delivery options: Proctored exam delivered onsite at a testing center or in an
online proctored environment. Click here for information on scheduling an exam.
References: No hard-copy or online materials may be referenced during the exam.
As preparation for this exam, we recommend a combination of hands-on experience,
training course completion, Trailhead trails, and self-study in the areas listed
in the Exam Outline section of this exam guide.
The self-study materials recommended for this exam include:
Trailmix: Prepare for Your Salesforce Platform App Builder Credential
Superbadge: Security Specialist
Superbadge: Process Automation Specialist
Superbadge: App Customization Specialist
To enroll in instructor-led courses and launch online training from your
Salesforce application, click the Help & Training link in the upper right corner
of the screen (requires login) and search for the desired courses. Non-Salesforce
customers can register for instructor-led courses here.
Instructor-Led Training recommended for this exam:
Declarative Development for Platform App Builders in Lightning Experience (DEX
403)
Certification Preparation for Platform App Builder (CRT 402)
To review online Documentation, Tip Sheets, and User Guides, search for the
topics listed in the Exam Outline section of this guide and study the
information related to those topics. Documentation, Tip Sheets, and User Guides
can also be accessed through Help & Training.
Exam Outline
The Salesforce Platform App Builder exam measures a candidate’s knowledge and
skills related to the following objectives. A candidate should have hands-on
experience developing custom applications on the Lightning Platform and have
demonstrated the application of each of the features/functions below.
Salesforce Fundamentals: 8%
Describe the capabilities of the core CRM objects in the Salesforce schema.
Given a scenario, identify the boundaries of declarative customization and the
use cases for programmatic customization.
Identify common scenarios for extending an org using the AppExchange.
Data Modeling and Management: 20% Given a scenario, determine the appropriate data model.
Describe the capabilities of the various relationship types and the implications
of each on record access, user interface, and reporting.
Identify the considerations when changing a field's type.
Given a set of requirements, identify the considerations and select the
appropriate field type.
Describe the capabilities and considerations of the schema builder.
Describe the options and considerations when importing and exporting data.
Describe the capabilities of and use cases for external objects.
Security: 10%
Describe the features and capabilities available to restrict and extend object,
record, and field access.
Given a set of business requirements, determine the appropriate sharing
solution.
Business Logic and Process Automation: 27% Describe the capabilities of and use cases for record types.
Describe the capabilities of and use cases for formula fields.
Describe the capabilities of, use cases for, and implications of roll-up summary
fields.
Describe the capabilities of and use cases for validation rules.
Describe the capabilities of and use cases for approval processes.
Describe the capabilities of and use cases for workflow, Flow, and Process
Builder.
Given a set of business requirements, recommend a solution to automate business
processes.
Describe the ramifications of field updates and the potential for recursion.
Social: 3% Describe the capabilities of and use cases for social features.
User Interface: 14% Describe the user interface customization options.
Describe the capabilities of and use cases for custom buttons, links, and
actions.
Describe the declarative options available for incorporating Lightning
Components in an application.
Given a scenario, determine the appropriate user interface design.
Reporting: 5% Describe the features and capabilities available when creating reports,
report types, and dashboards.
Mobile: 5% Describe the declarative customization options available for the Salesforce
mobile application user interface.
Given a set of requirements, determine the appropriate global and
object-specific actions and action layouts to optimize the Salesforce mobile
application user experience.
App Development: 8%
Describe the key milestones and considerations when managing the application
lifecycle.
Describe the differences between and considerations when using the various types
of sandboxes.
Describe the capabilities of and considerations when using change sets.
Describe the use cases of and considerations when using unmanaged packages.
Given a scenario, determine the appropriate deployment plan.
Maintaining Your Salesforce Certification One of the benefits of holding a Salesforce credential is always being
up-to-date on new product releases (updates). As such, you will be required to
complete the Platform App Builder certification maintenance modules on Trailhead
three times a year.
Don’t let your hard-earned credential expire! If you do not complete all
maintenance requirements by the due date, your credential will expire.
Bookmark these useful resources for maintaining your credentials:
Overall Maintenance Requirements
Maintenance Exam Due Dates
Verify Your Certification Status
Certification Expiration Details
QUESTION 1 Universal Containers manages internal projects by department using a custom
object called Projects. Only
employees in the project’s respective department should have view access to all
of the department’s project
records. If an employee changes job roles and moves to another department, the
employee should no longer
have access to the projects within their former department.
Which two options will meet these requirements assuming the organization-wide
default for Projects is set to Private? (Choose two.)
A. Create a criteria-based sharing rule using the Project’s department that
grants access to users by profiles.
B. Create a criteria-based sharing rule using the Project’s department that
grants access to users by permission sets.
C. Create a criteria-based sharing rule using the Project’s department that
grants access to users by roles.
D. Create a criteria-based sharing rule using the Project’s department that
grants access to users by public groups.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 2 Universal Containers has a customer base where many customers have the same
or similar company names.
Which functionality should be configured to improve an end user’s search
experience? (Choose two.)
A. Update the account search layouts search filter fields.
B. Update the account search layouts accounts tab columns displayed.
C. Update the account search layouts search results columns displayed.
D. Update the account search layouts list view filter settings.
Correct Answer: B,C
QUESTION 3 An app builder creates an Account validation rule on the Industry field that
will throw an error if the length of
the field is longer than 6 characters. Another app builder creates a workflow
with a field update that sets the
Industry field to Technology whenever the Billing City field is set to San
Francisco.
What will happen the next time a sales person saves an Account with a Billing
City of San Francisco?
A. The record will save and the Industry field will change to Technology.
B. The record will not save and no error message will be displayed.
C. The record will not save the validation rule’s error message will be
displayed.
D. The record will save but the Industry field will not change to Territory.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 What is a true statement when deleting a dashboard?
A. Deleting a dashboard also deletes the components within it. It does not
delete the custom reports used by the components.
B. Deleting a dashboard does not move the dashboard to the Recycle Bin and
therefore the dashboard cannot be recovered.
C. Deleting a dashboard also deletes the components within it as well as the
custom reports used by the components.
D. Deleting a dashboard requires a user to first edit the components to remove
the underlying reports.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 A junction object has two Master-Detail relationships, a primary and a
secondary master object.
What happens to a junction object record when both associated master records are
deleted?
A. The junction object record is permanently deleted and can’t be restored.
B. The delete operation cannot be performed on both master records.
C. The delete operation is not allowed with Roll-up summary fields defined.
D. The junction object records is deleted and placed in the recycle bin.
Exam Name: Nokia Scalable IP Networks
Exam Number: 4A0-100
Credit Towards Certifications: Nokia Network Routing Specialist I
Mandatory Exam Prerequisites: N/A
Exam Duration: 75 Minutes
Exam Appointment Duration: 120 minutes. This is the exam duration plus a 45
minute tutorial on computer-based examinations.
Number of Questions: 60
Language: English
For a list of candidate exam topics, please refer to the list of course
objectives and modules in the course outline. The course overview page and
course outline can be found here.
Exam exemptions are available for individuals with IP certifications from other
organizations. Refer to the following link for additional details: Credit for
Other IP Certifications.
Exams are delivered by our external test delivery partner, Pearson VUE. For more
information, access their website at www.pearsonvue.com/nokia.
QUESTION 1 You are configuring your Alcatel-Lucent 7750SR Service Router from the
Command Line Interface (CLI), and after entering a lengthy command, wish to
return directly to the ROOT context. Which control command allows you to do this
quickly?
A. Ctrl-z
B. Ctrl-c
C. Esc
D. Shift-Page Down
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Which of the following best describes a repeater?
A. A passive device simply used to connect two or more cables. Does not generate
or amplify any signals.
B. A device that receives and retransmits a signal out its ports, but does not
do any Layer 2 analysis of the data.
C. A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 2 destination address,
makes a decision on which ports the signal should be retransmitted.
D. A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 3 destination address,
makes a decision on which ports the signal should be retransmitted.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 How do protocols such as ATM and Frame-Relay support differentiating
multiple customers or traffic types on the same physical wire?
A. ATM and Frame-Relay are circuit switched protocols and use Virtual Circuits
to create logical separation of traffic.
B. ATM and Frame-Relay are point-to-point protocols and do not support different
customers or traffic type on the same physical wire.
C. ATM and Frame-Relay are circuit switched protocols and use VLAN's to create
logical separation of traffic.
D. ATM and Frame-Relay are circuit switched protocols and use IP Header
information to create logical separation of traffic.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Which of the following is a feature of Layer 3?
A. Provides an universal addressing scheme
B. Ensures data is delivered across the Layer 2 network.
C. Provides reliable data transfers.
D. Provides a physical interface to the network.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 The 201.148.26.0/24 network is subnetted using a /26 mask. How many subnets
and host addresses will you obtain with this mask?
A. 4 subnets, 64 hosts
B. 64 subnets, 4 hosts
C. 4 subnets, 62 hosts
D. 64 subnets, 2 hosts
E. 6 subnets, 30 hosts
Written Exams Nokia written exams are delivered through Nokia's test delivery partner,
Pearson VUE. Exams are offered in a secure and proctored environment with global
test sites. Written exams can be attempted in any order. All exams are offered
in English only. If candidates fail to pass a written exam, there is no waiting
period required before retaking the exam and no limit on how many times an exam
can be rewritten. It may take up to five (5) business days for Nokia to receive
an exam result from the test center. Once Nokia has received the result for your
exam, we will send you an acknowledgment of your result and post the result to
your personalized Student Portal page.
The Student Portal lets program participants manage exams online through a
single portal. This includes scheduling, rescheduling, and cancelling exams. For
more information on scheduling, see the Nokia Learning Services Written Exam
Registration Guide.
Practice Exams Practice exams are available to help you prepare for the written exams. You
can find the list of downloadable practice exams at the bottom of this page.
Practical Lab Exams The Nokia NRS II Lab Exam and SRA Lab Exam are available from select Nokia
facilities.
Prerequisites for practical lab exams are defined below. In the event that a
candidate fails a practical lab exam, there is a mandatory 3-month waiting
period before the exam can be attempted again.
Additional information and pricing for Nokia SRC written and lab exams can be
found by clicking on the exam links below.
QUESTION 1 VPWS allows carriers to offer services such as point-to-point frame-relay,
ATM, and Ethernet on a single platform without the need for multiple overlay
networks.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Which of the following best describes a VPLS?
A. Layer 3 direct Internet access service
B. Layer 2 point-to-point service
C. Layer 2 multipoint-to-multipoint service
D. Layer 3 IP multipoint-to-multipoint VPN service
Answer: C
Section: Volume A
QUESTION 3 Which of the following is NOT a VPWS service supported on the Nokia 7750 SR?
A. E-pipe
B. F-pipe
C. A-pipe
D. I-pipe
E. C-pipe
F. G-pipe
Answer: F
QUESTION 4 A service can be either local or distributed.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
QUESTION 5 When configuring distributed services across a network, it is considered
best practice to configure which of the following parameters as globally
significant? (Choose two.)
Exam ID HPE0-S58
Exam type Proctored
Exam duration 1 hour 30 minutes
Exam length 60 questions
Passing score 60%
Delivery languages Japanese, English, Korean
Supporting resources These recommended resources help you prepare for the exam:
Implementing HPE Composable Infrastructure Solutions, Rev. 19.21
Additional study materials
HPE ASE - Composable Infrastructure Integrator V1 (HPE0-S58) Study Guide
Exam description This certification validates candidates’ ASE level skills integrating HPE
Hybrid IT compute solutions. Successful candidates will be able to demonstrate
appropriate expertise with planning and implementing integrations of HPE compute
solutions within a customer environment.
Ideal candidate for this exam
The candidate has implementation experience with HPE compute solutions,
including the ability to install, configure, optimize, and resolve issues
related to integration and operation. The candidate uses their extensive
knowledge of HPE terms, tools, technologies, processes, products, and services
to perform the related tasks for HPE solutions. The candidate uses analysis of
information and decision making skills to implement solutions to meet customers’
server requirements.
Exam contents
This exam has 60 questions.
Advice to help you take this exam
Complete the training and review all course materials and documents before you
take the exam.
Use HPE Press study guides and additional reference materials; study guides,
practice tests, and HPE books.
Exam items are based on expected knowledge acquired from job experience, an
expected level of industry standard knowledge, or other prerequisites (events,
supplemental materials, etc.).
Successful completion of the course or study materials alone, does not ensure
you will pass the exam.
Objectives This exam validates that you can:
13% Understand the mainstream HPE enterprise compute product portfolio
13% Review and Validate designs for Compute Solution implementation
Given the architect’s design, validate the solution is complete and the site is
prepared for implementation
Given a scenario, validate the solution design for compatibility with the
existing infrastructure
Given a scenario, identify the required components for an implementation plan
38% Install, Configure, and Set Up, HPE Compute Solutions
Describe installation and start-up procedure for solution components
Describe how the advanced configuration of the solution components is performed.
Describe how to validate proper solution functionality.
18% Troubleshoot HPE Compute Solutions
Given a scenario, use the appropriate tools to identify and analyze an issue.
Given a scenario with an issue, explain the action plan for resolution.
Given a defined issue and action plan, explain the effects and results of the
proposed actions
18% Monitor, Maintain, and Manage Solutions
Given a customer scenario, identify potential impacts of a change
Given a customer’s performance data and solution design, identify the bottleneck
Given a scenario, identify changes in customer compute resource requirements.
Using support matrices, evaluate software and firmware compatibility
Describe methods for modifying configuration of components to meet changing
customer requirements
QUESTION 1
During an initial setup of a Synergy environment, an integrator needs to enable or disable authorized Service
access.
What will be the outcome when the integrator disables this service?
A. Authenticated administrators will be unable to make changes to the system
B. Authorized users will be unable to generate a support dump
C. Authenticated administrators will be unable to access the system
D. Authorized support will be unable to diagnose the system
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpsc/doc/public/display?docId=emr_na-c05098314 (62)
QUESTION 2
FILL BLANK
A customer has the following configuration:
Frame 1
Bay 1 – HPE Synergy 12Gb SAS Connection Module
Bay 2
Bay 3 – HPE Virtual Connect SE 40 GB F8 Module
Bay 4 – HPE Synergy 12GB SAS Connection Module
Bay 5
Bay 6 – HPE Synergy 10 Gb Interconnect Link Module
Frame 2
Bay 1 – HPE Synergy 12Gb SAS Connection Module
Bay 2
Bay 3 – HPE Synergy 10Gb Interconnect Link Module
Bay 4 – HPE Synergy 12Gb SAS Connection Module
Bay 5
Bay 6 – HPE Virtual Connect SE 40Gb F8 Module
How many more frames can the customer add to their Synergy composable fabric? (Note: Enter your answer
in the answer field below.)
Answer: See explanation below.
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Frame 1 – Bay 2 – HPE Virtual Connect SE 100Gb F32 Module for Synergy
(867796-B21)
Frame 1 – Bay 5 – HPE Virtual Connect SE 16Gb Fibre Channel Module for
Synergy (779227-B21)
Frame 2 – Bay 2 – Brocade 16Gb/24 Power Pack+ Fibre Channel SAN Switch Module for HPE Synergy
(K2Q86A)
Frame 2 – Bay 5 – HPE Synergy 4820C 10/20/25Gb Converged Network Adapter (876449-B21)
QUESTION 3
In a 3-frame HPE Synergy environment, how should an integrator place the image Streamer modules to allow
for redundancy to all of the management connections?
A. one Image Streamer module in frame 2, and a second Image Streamer Module in frame 3 (2 total)
B. two Image Streamer modules in frame 2, and two Image Streamer modules in frame 3 (4 total)
C. one Image Streamer module in each Synergy frame (3 total)
D. two Image Streamer modules in frame 1 (2 total)
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://www.karma-group.ru/upload/iblock/2be/synergy_image_streamer.pdf (page 7)
QUESTION 4
What must an integrator do before an existing cluster can be imported to the HPE Composer?
A. The vCenter Server must be integrated with the HPE Composer
B. The cluster must be vSAN enabled
C. The HPE Composer must have at least two management interfaces to connect to the cluster
D. The cluster must be enabled for HPE Composer integration
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QUESTION 1 A DevOps Engineer has cloned an environment, and configurations must be
adjusted for the environment to
function correctly. Due to the cloning, the domain and IPs changed during the
process.
Specifically for content activation, which two parts of the configurations must
be altered? (Choose two.)
A. The user of the flush agents
B. The transport URI of the replication agents
C. The transport URI of the flush agents
D. The transport URI of the dispatcher configuration
E. The user of the static content agent
Correct Answer: C,E
QUESTION 2 An html page is published and is accessible through the dispatcher. A client
is trying to access the updated
page but is not getting the updated content.
A rule /type “allow” /glob “*.html” is present in the dispatcher /cache /rules
configuration
The HTTP header “Cache-Control: max-age=3600” is set for all requests with the
html extension
The /invalidate section is not set in the dispatcher configuration
A flush agent is configured on the publish instance
A CDN is serving all static content including html files and was flushed
manually
Why does the content fail to update on the client side?
A. The file was cached on the client side in the browser cache.
B. There is no /invalidate section present in the dispatcher configuration to
invalidate the updated content.
C. The flush occurred before the content was replicated because there are a lot
of items in the queue.
D. The content is still cached in the dispatcher after the CDN flush.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 After which maintenance processes can a datastore garbage collection achieve
the most regain of disk space?
A. Re-index
B. Compaction
C. Version purge
D. Workflow purge
