Exam Name: Nokia Scalable IP Networks
Exam Number: 4A0-100
Credit Towards Certifications: Nokia Network Routing Specialist I
Mandatory Exam Prerequisites: N/A
Exam Duration: 75 Minutes
Exam Appointment Duration: 120 minutes. This is the exam duration plus a 45
minute tutorial on computer-based examinations.
Number of Questions: 60
Language: English
For a list of candidate exam topics, please refer to the list of course
objectives and modules in the course outline. The course overview page and
course outline can be found here.
Exam exemptions are available for individuals with IP certifications from other
organizations. Refer to the following link for additional details: Credit for
Other IP Certifications.
Exams are delivered by our external test delivery partner, Pearson VUE. For more
information, access their website at www.pearsonvue.com/nokia.
QUESTION 1 You are configuring your Alcatel-Lucent 7750SR Service Router from the
Command Line Interface (CLI), and after entering a lengthy command, wish to
return directly to the ROOT context. Which control command allows you to do this
quickly?
A. Ctrl-z
B. Ctrl-c
C. Esc
D. Shift-Page Down
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Which of the following best describes a repeater?
A. A passive device simply used to connect two or more cables. Does not generate
or amplify any signals.
B. A device that receives and retransmits a signal out its ports, but does not
do any Layer 2 analysis of the data.
C. A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 2 destination address,
makes a decision on which ports the signal should be retransmitted.
D. A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 3 destination address,
makes a decision on which ports the signal should be retransmitted.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 How do protocols such as ATM and Frame-Relay support differentiating
multiple customers or traffic types on the same physical wire?
A. ATM and Frame-Relay are circuit switched protocols and use Virtual Circuits
to create logical separation of traffic.
B. ATM and Frame-Relay are point-to-point protocols and do not support different
customers or traffic type on the same physical wire.
C. ATM and Frame-Relay are circuit switched protocols and use VLAN's to create
logical separation of traffic.
D. ATM and Frame-Relay are circuit switched protocols and use IP Header
information to create logical separation of traffic.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Which of the following is a feature of Layer 3?
A. Provides an universal addressing scheme
B. Ensures data is delivered across the Layer 2 network.
C. Provides reliable data transfers.
D. Provides a physical interface to the network.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 The 201.148.26.0/24 network is subnetted using a /26 mask. How many subnets
and host addresses will you obtain with this mask?
A. 4 subnets, 64 hosts
B. 64 subnets, 4 hosts
C. 4 subnets, 62 hosts
D. 64 subnets, 2 hosts
E. 6 subnets, 30 hosts
Written Exams Nokia written exams are delivered through Nokia's test delivery partner,
Pearson VUE. Exams are offered in a secure and proctored environment with global
test sites. Written exams can be attempted in any order. All exams are offered
in English only. If candidates fail to pass a written exam, there is no waiting
period required before retaking the exam and no limit on how many times an exam
can be rewritten. It may take up to five (5) business days for Nokia to receive
an exam result from the test center. Once Nokia has received the result for your
exam, we will send you an acknowledgment of your result and post the result to
your personalized Student Portal page.
The Student Portal lets program participants manage exams online through a
single portal. This includes scheduling, rescheduling, and cancelling exams. For
more information on scheduling, see the Nokia Learning Services Written Exam
Registration Guide.
Practice Exams Practice exams are available to help you prepare for the written exams. You
can find the list of downloadable practice exams at the bottom of this page.
Practical Lab Exams The Nokia NRS II Lab Exam and SRA Lab Exam are available from select Nokia
facilities.
Prerequisites for practical lab exams are defined below. In the event that a
candidate fails a practical lab exam, there is a mandatory 3-month waiting
period before the exam can be attempted again.
Additional information and pricing for Nokia SRC written and lab exams can be
found by clicking on the exam links below.
QUESTION 1 VPWS allows carriers to offer services such as point-to-point frame-relay,
ATM, and Ethernet on a single platform without the need for multiple overlay
networks.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Which of the following best describes a VPLS?
A. Layer 3 direct Internet access service
B. Layer 2 point-to-point service
C. Layer 2 multipoint-to-multipoint service
D. Layer 3 IP multipoint-to-multipoint VPN service
Answer: C
Section: Volume A
QUESTION 3 Which of the following is NOT a VPWS service supported on the Nokia 7750 SR?
A. E-pipe
B. F-pipe
C. A-pipe
D. I-pipe
E. C-pipe
F. G-pipe
Answer: F
QUESTION 4 A service can be either local or distributed.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
QUESTION 5 When configuring distributed services across a network, it is considered
best practice to configure which of the following parameters as globally
significant? (Choose two.)
Exam ID HPE0-S58
Exam type Proctored
Exam duration 1 hour 30 minutes
Exam length 60 questions
Passing score 60%
Delivery languages Japanese, English, Korean
Supporting resources These recommended resources help you prepare for the exam:
Implementing HPE Composable Infrastructure Solutions, Rev. 19.21
Additional study materials
HPE ASE - Composable Infrastructure Integrator V1 (HPE0-S58) Study Guide
Exam description This certification validates candidates’ ASE level skills integrating HPE
Hybrid IT compute solutions. Successful candidates will be able to demonstrate
appropriate expertise with planning and implementing integrations of HPE compute
solutions within a customer environment.
Ideal candidate for this exam
The candidate has implementation experience with HPE compute solutions,
including the ability to install, configure, optimize, and resolve issues
related to integration and operation. The candidate uses their extensive
knowledge of HPE terms, tools, technologies, processes, products, and services
to perform the related tasks for HPE solutions. The candidate uses analysis of
information and decision making skills to implement solutions to meet customers’
server requirements.
Exam contents
This exam has 60 questions.
Advice to help you take this exam
Complete the training and review all course materials and documents before you
take the exam.
Use HPE Press study guides and additional reference materials; study guides,
practice tests, and HPE books.
Exam items are based on expected knowledge acquired from job experience, an
expected level of industry standard knowledge, or other prerequisites (events,
supplemental materials, etc.).
Successful completion of the course or study materials alone, does not ensure
you will pass the exam.
Objectives This exam validates that you can:
13% Understand the mainstream HPE enterprise compute product portfolio
13% Review and Validate designs for Compute Solution implementation
Given the architect’s design, validate the solution is complete and the site is
prepared for implementation
Given a scenario, validate the solution design for compatibility with the
existing infrastructure
Given a scenario, identify the required components for an implementation plan
38% Install, Configure, and Set Up, HPE Compute Solutions
Describe installation and start-up procedure for solution components
Describe how the advanced configuration of the solution components is performed.
Describe how to validate proper solution functionality.
18% Troubleshoot HPE Compute Solutions
Given a scenario, use the appropriate tools to identify and analyze an issue.
Given a scenario with an issue, explain the action plan for resolution.
Given a defined issue and action plan, explain the effects and results of the
proposed actions
18% Monitor, Maintain, and Manage Solutions
Given a customer scenario, identify potential impacts of a change
Given a customer’s performance data and solution design, identify the bottleneck
Given a scenario, identify changes in customer compute resource requirements.
Using support matrices, evaluate software and firmware compatibility
Describe methods for modifying configuration of components to meet changing
customer requirements
QUESTION 1
During an initial setup of a Synergy environment, an integrator needs to enable or disable authorized Service
access.
What will be the outcome when the integrator disables this service?
A. Authenticated administrators will be unable to make changes to the system
B. Authorized users will be unable to generate a support dump
C. Authenticated administrators will be unable to access the system
D. Authorized support will be unable to diagnose the system
Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpsc/doc/public/display?docId=emr_na-c05098314 (62)
QUESTION 2
FILL BLANK
A customer has the following configuration:
Frame 1
Bay 1 – HPE Synergy 12Gb SAS Connection Module
Bay 2
Bay 3 – HPE Virtual Connect SE 40 GB F8 Module
Bay 4 – HPE Synergy 12GB SAS Connection Module
Bay 5
Bay 6 – HPE Synergy 10 Gb Interconnect Link Module
Frame 2
Bay 1 – HPE Synergy 12Gb SAS Connection Module
Bay 2
Bay 3 – HPE Synergy 10Gb Interconnect Link Module
Bay 4 – HPE Synergy 12Gb SAS Connection Module
Bay 5
Bay 6 – HPE Virtual Connect SE 40Gb F8 Module
How many more frames can the customer add to their Synergy composable fabric? (Note: Enter your answer
in the answer field below.)
Answer: See explanation below.
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Frame 1 – Bay 2 – HPE Virtual Connect SE 100Gb F32 Module for Synergy
(867796-B21)
Frame 1 – Bay 5 – HPE Virtual Connect SE 16Gb Fibre Channel Module for
Synergy (779227-B21)
Frame 2 – Bay 2 – Brocade 16Gb/24 Power Pack+ Fibre Channel SAN Switch Module for HPE Synergy
(K2Q86A)
Frame 2 – Bay 5 – HPE Synergy 4820C 10/20/25Gb Converged Network Adapter (876449-B21)
QUESTION 3
In a 3-frame HPE Synergy environment, how should an integrator place the image Streamer modules to allow
for redundancy to all of the management connections?
A. one Image Streamer module in frame 2, and a second Image Streamer Module in frame 3 (2 total)
B. two Image Streamer modules in frame 2, and two Image Streamer modules in frame 3 (4 total)
C. one Image Streamer module in each Synergy frame (3 total)
D. two Image Streamer modules in frame 1 (2 total)
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://www.karma-group.ru/upload/iblock/2be/synergy_image_streamer.pdf (page 7)
QUESTION 4
What must an integrator do before an existing cluster can be imported to the HPE Composer?
A. The vCenter Server must be integrated with the HPE Composer
B. The cluster must be vSAN enabled
C. The HPE Composer must have at least two management interfaces to connect to the cluster
D. The cluster must be enabled for HPE Composer integration
Get instant access to AD0-E106 practice exam questions
- Get ready to pass the AD0-E106 exam right now using our Adobe AD0-E106 exam
package, which includes Adobe AD0-E106 dumps plus an Adobe AD0-E106 Exam
Simulator and Mobile App.
- The best AD0-E106 exam study material and preparation tool is here.
QUESTION 1 A DevOps Engineer has cloned an environment, and configurations must be
adjusted for the environment to
function correctly. Due to the cloning, the domain and IPs changed during the
process.
Specifically for content activation, which two parts of the configurations must
be altered? (Choose two.)
A. The user of the flush agents
B. The transport URI of the replication agents
C. The transport URI of the flush agents
D. The transport URI of the dispatcher configuration
E. The user of the static content agent
Correct Answer: C,E
QUESTION 2 An html page is published and is accessible through the dispatcher. A client
is trying to access the updated
page but is not getting the updated content.
A rule /type “allow” /glob “*.html” is present in the dispatcher /cache /rules
configuration
The HTTP header “Cache-Control: max-age=3600” is set for all requests with the
html extension
The /invalidate section is not set in the dispatcher configuration
A flush agent is configured on the publish instance
A CDN is serving all static content including html files and was flushed
manually
Why does the content fail to update on the client side?
A. The file was cached on the client side in the browser cache.
B. There is no /invalidate section present in the dispatcher configuration to
invalidate the updated content.
C. The flush occurred before the content was replicated because there are a lot
of items in the queue.
D. The content is still cached in the dispatcher after the CDN flush.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 After which maintenance processes can a datastore garbage collection achieve
the most regain of disk space?
A. Re-index
B. Compaction
C. Version purge
D. Workflow purge
Oracle Database Administration I | 1Z0-082 An Oracle Database Administration 2019 Certified Professional has proven
theoretical understanding of and the practical skills required to configure and
manage Oracle Databases up to and including Oracle 19c. Passing this 1st exam in
the 2 exam path proves your skills in SQL programming skills, database and
network administration.
Audience: Database Administrator
Exam Details
Exam Title: Oracle Database Administration I
Exam Number: 1Z0-082
Exam Price: $50
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 150 Minutes
Number of Questions: 90
Passing Score: 60%
Validated Against: Oracle Database Administration 2019 Certified Professional
Take Recommended Training Courses Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):
Oracle Database: Administration Workshop
Oracle Database: Introduction to SQL
Oracle Database Administration Learning Subscription
Unlimited Product Learning Subscription
Additional Preparation and Information A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs
and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.
Oracle Database 2019 Certification Overview and Study Guide
Understanding Oracle Database Architecture - Oracle Database: Administration
Workshop Understanding Oracle Database Instance Configurations
Understanding Oracle Database Memory and Process Structures
Understanding Logical and Physical Database Structures
Understanding Oracle Database Server Architecture
Managing Users, Roles and Privileges - Oracle Database: Administration
Workshop Assigning Quotas to Users
Applying the Principal of Least Privilege
Creating and Assigning Profiles
Administering User Authentication Methods
Managing Oracle Database Users, Privileges, and Roles
Moving Data - Oracle Database: Administration Workshop Using External Tables
Using Oracle Data Pump
Using SQL*Loader
Configuring Oracle Net Services - Oracle Database: Administration Workshop Using Oracle Net Services Administration Tools
Configuring Communication Between Database Instances
Configuring the Oracle Net Listener
Connecting to an Oracle Database Instance
Comparing Dedicated and Shared Server Configurations
Administering Naming Methods
Managing Undo - Oracle Database: Administration Workshop
Understanding Transactions and Undo Data
Storing Undo Information
Configuring Undo Rentention
Comparing Undo Data and Redo Data
Understanding Temporary Undo
Using Conversion Functions and Conditional Expressions - Oracle Database:
Introduction to SQL Applying the NVL, NULLIF, and COALESCE functions to data
Understanding implicit and explicit data type conversion
Using the TO_CHAR, TO_NUMBER, and TO_DATE conversion functions
Nesting multiple functions
Using SET Operators - Oracle Database: Introduction to SQL Matching the SELECT statements
Using the ORDER BY clause in set operations
Using The INTERSECT operator
Using The MINUS operator
Using The UNION and UNION ALL operators
Managing Views - Oracle Database: Introduction to SQL
Retrieving Data using the SQL SELECT Statement - Oracle Database:
Introduction to SQL Using Column aliases
Using The DESCRIBE command
Using The SQL SELECT statement
Using concatenation operator, literal character strings, alternative quote
operator, and the DISTINCT keyword
Using Arithmetic expressions and NULL values in the SELECT statement
Reporting Aggregated Data Using Group Functions - Oracle Database:
Introduction to SQL
Restricting Group Results
Creating Groups of Data
Using Group Functions
Managing Tables using DML statements - Oracle Database: Introduction to SQL Managing Database Transactions
Using Data Manipulation Language
Controlling transactions
Managing Schema Objects - Oracle Database: Introduction to SQL Creating and using temporary tables
Managing constraints
Managing Database Instances - Oracle Database: Administration Workshop
Starting Up Oracle Database Instances
Using Data Dictionary Views
Shutting Down Oracle Database Instances
Using Dynamic Performance Views
Using the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR)
Using the Alert Log and Trace Files
Managing Initialization Parameter Files
Managing Storage - Oracle Database: Administration Workshop Managing Resumable Space Allocation
Shrinking Segments
Deferring Segment Creation
Using Space-Saving Features
Deploying Oracle Database Space Management Features
Managing Different Types of Segments
Using Table and Row Compression
Understanding Block Space Management
Accessing an Oracle Database with Oracle supplied Tools - Oracle Database:
Administration Workshop
Using the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA)
Using Oracle Enterprise Manager Cloud Control
Using racle enterprise Manager Database Express
Using SQL Developer
Using SQL Plus
Managing Tablespaces and Datafiles - Oracle Database: Administration Workshop
Viewing Tablespace Information
Creating, Altering and Dropping Tablespaces
Managing Table Data Storage
Implementing Oracle Managed Files
Moving and Renaming Online Data Files
Restricting and Sorting Data - Oracle Database: Introduction to SQL
Applying Rules of precedence for operators in an expression
Limiting Rows Returned in a SQL Statement
Using Substitution Variables
Using the DEFINE and VERIFY commands
Displaying Data from Multiple Tables Using Joins - Oracle Database: Introduction
to SQL
Using Self-joins
Using Various Types of Joins
Using Non equijoins
Using OUTER joins
Understanding Data Definition Language - Oracle Database: Introduction to SQL
Using Data Definition Language
Managing Data in Different Time Zones - Oracle Database: Introduction to SQL Working with CURRENT_DATE, CURRENT_TIMESTAMP,and LOCALTIMESTAMP
Working with INTERVAL data types
Using Single-Row Functions to Customize Output - Oracle Database:
Introduction to SQL Manipulating strings with character functions in SQL SELECT and WHERE
clauses
Performing arithmetic with date data
Manipulating numbers with the ROUND, TRUNC and MOD functions
Manipulating dates with the date function
Using Subqueries to Solve Queries - Oracle Database: Introduction to SQL Using Single Row Subqueries
Using Multiple Row Subqueries
QUESTION 2
Which statement is true about the INTERSECT operator used in compound queries?
A. Multiple INTERSECT operators are not possible in the same SQL statement
B. It processes NULLs in the selected columns
C. INTERSECT is of lower precedence than UNION or UNION ALL
D. It ignores NULLs
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which three statements are true about advanced connection options supported by Oracle Net for connection
to Oracle Database instances? (Choose three.)
A. Connect Time Failover requires the use of Transparent Application Failover (TAF)
B. Source Routing requires the use of a name server
C. Source Routing enables the use of Connection Manager (CMAN) which enables network traffic to be
routed through a firewall
D. Load Balancing can balance the number of connections to dispatchers when using a Shared Server
configuration
E. Load Balancing requires the use of a name server
F. Connect Time Failover requires the connect string to have two or more listener addresses configured
Answer: B,CF
QUESTION 4
Which two statements are true about date/time functions in a session where NLS_DATE_FORMAT is set to
DD-MON-YYYY HH24:MI:SS? (Choose two.)
A. CURRENT_TIMESTAMP returns the same date and time as SYSDATE with additional details of fractional
seconds
B. SYSDATE can be queried only from the DUAL table
C. CURRENT_DATE returns the current date and time as per the session time zone
D. SYSDATE can be used in expressions only if the default date format is DD-MON-RR
E. SYSDATE and CURRENT_DATE return the current date and time set for the operating system of the
database server
F. CURRENT_TIMESTAMP returns the same date as CURRENT_DATE
Answer: B,C
QUESTION 5
A database is configured to use automatic undo management with temporary undo enabled.
An UPDATE is executed on a temporary table.
Where is the UNDO stored?
A. in the undo tablespace
B. in the SYSAUX tablespace
C. in the SGA
D. in the PGA
E. in the temporary tablespace
Answer: A
QUESTION 6
You have been tasked to create a table for a banking application.
One of the columns must meet three requirements:
1. Be stored in a format supporting date arithmetic without using conversion functions
2. Store a loan period of up to 10 years
3. Be used for calculating interest for the number of days the loan remains unpaid
Which data type should you use?
A. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH
B. INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND
C. TIMESTAMP WITH LOCAL TIMEZONE
D. TIMESTAMP
E. TIMESTAMP WITH TIMEZONE
Certification Overview This certifies a student can install, implement, manage and administer an
Isilon scale-out storage solution in a live datacenter environment.
Certification Requirements To complete the requirements for this certification you must:
1. Achieve one of the following pre-requisite certifications*
• Associate - Information Storage and Management Version 2.0
• Associate - Information Storage and Management Version 3.0
• Associate - Information Storage and Management Version 4.0
• Specialist – Implementation Engineer, Isilon Solutions Version 2.0
• Specialist – Systems Administrator, Isilon Solutions Version 2.0
Overview This exam is a qualifying exam for the Specialist - Implementation Engineer,
Isilon Solutions (DCS-IE) track.
This exam focuses on the implementation of an Isilon scale-out storage solution.
The course prepares students to perform Isilon cluster installation and
implementation. Students will be familiar with Isilon software modules and
configurations including: SmartConnect , SMB, NFS, multi-protocol, data
protection/replication in single and multi-cluster implementations, archive
deployment, snapshots and replication, deduplication, RBAC, SNMP integration,
analytics, support and monitoring.
Dell Technologies provides free practice tests to assess your knowledge in
preparation for the exam. Practice tests allow you to become familiar with the
topics and question types you will find on the proctored exam. Your results on a
practice test offer one indication of how prepared you are for the proctored
exam and can highlight topics on which you need to study and train further. A
passing score on the practice test does not guarantee a passing score on the
certification exam.
Products likely to be referred to on this exam include but are not limited
to: • OneFS v8.2
• InsightIQ 3.0
• Isilon Generation 5 Nodes
• Isilon Generation 6 Nodes
Exam Topics Topics likely to be covered on this exam include:
Isilon Fundamentals and Authentication (16%) • Describe the Isilon storage concepts such as Scale out versus Scale up,
architecture, and OneFS details
• Identify and describe Isilon hardware components and intended use cases
including both Gen 5 and Gen 6 hardware types
• Identify and describe how an administrator accesses a cluster using WebUI, SSH,
and Multi-factor SSH
• Describe cluster dependencies on NTP, LDAP, Active Directory, and other
dependent configurations
Isilon Networking (17%) • Configure Access zones and base directories with the proper folder
structure layout
• Describe the basic internal and external network configurations,
multi-tenancy, groupnets, subnets, pools and rules
• Identify and explain the various network configurations in Gen 5 and Gen 6
including link aggregation, failover LACP, FEC, and Round Robin
• Describe how to integrate SmartConnect, SmartConnect zones, DNS, SSIP, IP
address pools, and load balancing
• Explain the use of VLAN, SBR, and NANON
Authentication, Identity Management, Authorization (10%) • Differentiate the use of RBAC and ZRBAC
• Explain the use of user identifiers and the proper use of ID mapping
• Identify and describe POSIX and ACLs permission rubrics
Client Protocols, Hadoop, and Auditing (13%) • Describe OneFS caching levels and use cases
• Configure SMB shares with SMB3 Continuous Availability (CA) and Server-Side
Copy with protocol auditing and file filtering
• Configure NFS exports with NFSv4 Continuous Availability (CA)
• Identify and describe Hadoop and Swift configurations and features
Data Protection and Layout (14%) • Identify FEC data protection levels, file striping, and Reed-Solomon
protection definitions
• Differentiate between requested, suggested, and actual protection levels and
verify with isi get commands
• Differentiate concurrent and streaming data layout models, use cases, and
performance impacts
• Explain storage pools, policies, neighborhoods, global namespace, spillover,
and VHS
OneFS Modules and Data Services (13%) • Differentiate between SmartPools, storage pools, SSD usage, and file pool
policies
• Describe how SmartQuotas are configured and identify the characteristics of
SmartDedupe capabilities
• Identify SnapshotIQ features, CoW and RoW mechanics, and scheduling
• Identify and describe how to prepare the cluster for SyncIQ disaster recovery
OneFS Job Engine (10%) • Identify and describe the OneFS Job Engine architecture, components, and
workers and circumstantial modes
• Describe the various job types, exclusion sets, priorities, and impacts
• Describe how jobs are managed in real time and how the schedule is maintained
Upgrades and Monitoring (10%) • Describe how upgrades are applied to a cluster including rollback and
commit options
• Explain the importance of firmware updates, ARR, and the Upgrade Helper tool
• Describe the installation of InsightIQ monitoring and reporting, and the use
of isi statistics commands
The percentages after each topic above reflects the approximate distribution of
the total question set across the exam.
QUESTION 1 When reviewing the actual protection output of N+4/2, what does the number
“4” represent?
A. FEC stripe units per stripe
B. Hard drives used per stripe
C. Volume stripes per file system
D. FEC stripe units per file system
Answer: A
Explanation:
It's OneFS FEC protection nomenclature for our "hybrid" protection polices. More
generally, it's written as: N+M/b
where "N" is the number of data stripe units in a stripe, "M" is the number of
FEC stripe units in a stripe, and "b" is the number of stripe units in a stripe
which are allowed to reside on the same node.
QUESTION 2 What impact can obsolete drive firmware have on an Isilon cluster?
A. Reduces administrative overhead and increases performance.
B. Affects redundancy settings and FEC coding.
C. Affects cluster performance or hardware reliability.
D. Increases runtime and cluster performance.
Answer: C
QUESTION 3 What defines FEC link aggregation mode?
A. Switches to the next interface when the primary interface becomes
unavailable.
B. Balances outgoing traffic based on hashed protocol header information that
includes source and destination addresses, and VLAN tag.
C. Balances outgoing traffic based on hashed protocol header information that
includes source and destination addresses.
D. Balances outbound traffic across all active ports in the aggregated link.
Answer: B
QUESTION 4 In Isilon OneFS, what is a characteristic of CoW with snapshots?
A. Used for small changes, inodes, and directories.
B. Avoids the double write penalty.
C. Increases file fragmentation.
D. Used for more substantial changes such as deletes.
Answer: A
Explanation:
With copy on write, as the name suggests, a new write to HEAD results in the old
blocks being copied out to the snapshot version first.
Although this incurs a double write penalty, it results in less fragmentation of
the HEAD file, which is better for cache prefetch, etc.
Typically, CoW is most prevalent in OneFS and is primarily used for small
changes, inodes and directories.
QUESTION 5 Which OneFS networking option enables Isilon for DNS multitenant
functionality?
Secure new opportunities. Do you know how to assess the vulnerability of a network and help prevent
attacks before they happen? Do you know how to perform WLAN security audits and
implement compliance monitoring solutions? Do you have experience setting up
Wireless Intrusion Prevention Systems (WISPS)?
Today’s wireless network security professionals need to have a deep
understanding of the latest software, tools, trends and technologies available.
Security professionals are often counted on to advise on security policies (i.e.
password and acceptable use). Plus, these experts are responsible for
configuring an entire network’s Security Design and Architecture.
Measure your skills and knowledge with this professional-level certification and
get on track toward ultimately earning your Certified Wireless Network Expert (CWNE)
certification. Those that pass the CWSP exam earn credit towards a CWNE
certification.
What it takes to become a CWSP: The CWSP certification is a professional level wireless LAN certification
for the CWNP Program. To earn a CWSP certification, you must hold a current and
valid CWNA credential. You must take the CWSP exam at a Pearson Vue Testing
Center and pass with a 70% or higher. Instructors must pass with a 80% or
higher. However you choose to prepare for the CWSP exam, you should start with
the exam objectives, which cover the full list of skills tested on the exam. The
CWSP certification is valid for three (3) years. To recertify, you must have a
current CWNA credential and pass the current CWSP exam. By passing the CWSP
exam, your CWNA certificate will be renewed for another three years.
Main areas covered by CWSP WLAN Discovery Techniques
Intrusion and Attack Techniques
802.11 Protocol Analysis
Wireless Intrusion Prevention Systems (WIPS) Implementation
Layer 2 and 3 VPNs used over 802.11 networks
Enterprise/SMB/SOHO/Public-Network Security design models
Managed Endpoint Security Systems802.11 Authentication and Key
Exam Objectives CWSP-206 Exam Objectives 2019 (CWSP-206 Exam will replace
CWSP-205 in September of 2019)
Management Protocols
Enterprise/SMB/SOHO/Public-Network Security Solution Implementation
Building Robust Security Networks from the ground up
Fast BSS Transition (aka. Fast/Secure Roaming) Techniques
Thorough coverage of all 802.1X/EAP types used in WLANs
Wireless LAN Management Systems (WNMS)
Authentication Infrastructure Design Models
Using Secure Applications
802.11 Design Architectures
Implementing a Thorough Wireless Security Policy
Official Wi-Fi Security Self Study Kit (including a Study Guide, Practice Test
and Exam Voucher)
Wi-Fi Security eLearning
Live Network Certification Training Class QUESTION 1
You have a Windows laptop computer with an integrated, dual-band, Wi-Fi compliant adapter. Your laptop
computer has protocol analyzer software installed that is capable of capturing and decoding 802.11ac data.
What statement best describes the likely ability to capture 802.11ac frames for security testing purposes?
A. Integrated 802.11ac adapters are not typically compatible with protocol analyzers in Windows laptops. It is
often best to use a USB adapter or carefully select a laptop with an integrated adapter that will work.
B. Laptops cannot be used to capture 802.11ac frames because they do not support MU-MIMO.
C. Only Wireshark can be used to capture 802.11ac frames as no other protocol analyzer has implemented
the proper frame decodes.
D. All integrated 802.11ac adapters will work with most protocol analyzers for frame capture, including the
Radio Tap Header.
E. The only method available to capture 802.11ac frames is to perform a remote capture with a compatible
access point.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
In order to acquire credentials of a valid user on a public hotspot network, what attacks may be conducted?
Choose the single completely correct answer.
A. MAC denial of service and/or physical theft
B. Social engineering and/or eavesdropping
C. Authentication cracking and/or RF DoS
D. Code injection and/or XSS
E. RF DoS and/or physical theft
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
What WLAN client device behavior is exploited by an attacker during a hijacking attack?
A. After the initial association and 4-way handshake, client stations and access points do not need to perform
another 4-way handshake, even if connectivity is lost.
B. Client drivers scan for and connect to access point in the 2.4 GHz band before scanning the 5 GHz band.
C. When the RF signal between a client and an access point is disrupted for more than a few seconds, the
client device will attempt to associate to an access point with better signal quality.
D. When the RF signal between a client and an access point is lost, the client will not seek to reassociate with
another access point until the 120 second hold down timer has expired.
E. As specified by the Wi-Fi Alliance, clients using Open System authentication must allow direct client-toclient
connections, even in an infrastructure BSS.
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
What software and hardware tools are used in the process performed to hijack a wireless station from the
authorized wireless network onto an unauthorized wireless network?
A. A low-gain patch antenna and terminal emulation software
B. MAC spoofing software and MAC DoS software
C. RF jamming device and a wireless radio card
D. A wireless workgroup bridge and a protocol analyzer
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Many computer users connect to the Internet at airports, which often have 802.11n access points with a
captive portal for authentication. While using an airport hotspot with this security solution, to what type of
wireless attack is a user susceptible?
A. Wi-Fi phishing
B. Management interface exploits
C. UDP port redirection
D. IGMP snooping
