Friday 8 December 2017

C9030-644 IBM z Systems Technical Support V7

Number of questions: 65
Number of questions to pass: 42
Time allowed: 120 mins
Status: Live

This exam consists of 5 sections described below.

Apply Information / Installation Planning / Migration Considerations 15%
Identify areas of risk to discuss with customer, relevant business partner(s), and IBM team:
Sysplex, I/O options
End of life / limited life
Drawers for cards (z13 and Infiniband cards)
TCO (workload retention)
Create a mutually developed implementation plan with the customer, including post-install.
Describe and implement consolidation methodology.
Ensure implementation plan is executed per requirements (including all necessary vendors, business partners, and IBM team groups).
Ensure that customer expectations have been met.

Business Resiliency 14%
Identify the elements of high availability which enable a z Systems environment to remain up and running without unscheduled outages (e.g., elements unique to single system environments, or multiple system environments in a single location, and multi-system-multi-location environment).
Identify the elements of continuous availability which enable a z Systems environment to remain up and running without any outages (planned or unplanned).
Identify the elements of a disaster recovery solution which affect the ability of the business to continue to run.
Explain recovery time objective (RTO) and recovery point objective (RPO), and identify the technologies that support these objectives.
Identify business or external elements which make having a resilient business critical, such as governmental and industry regulations or standards (finance, transit, etc), audit points, competition, and revenue impact.
Identify z Systems business resilience options and their capabilities, and alternative offerings, including (but not limited to) IBM BCRS and GDPS.
Given specific customer criteria and requirements, propose the appropriate business resilience solution, product, or process.
Conduct a business impact analysis to identify a solution which eliminates identified single points of failure (networking redundancy, application failover, infrastructure redundancy, HW or SW product redundancy).

Evaluate Customer Environment and Plans 15%
Evaluate and document current customer environment (equipment, software, staff usage, satisfaction, need for change and growth).
Identify opportunities (business resilience, workload consolidation, cloud, analytics, mobile, etc.).
Solve customer business problems using tools, methods, and processes, including benchmarks.
Solve customer business problems using capacity planning tools (zPCR, zCP3000, zBNA, zSoftCap, zTPM, zSCON).
Discuss how customers can use Techline to resolve computing issues.
Solve customer business problems using tools, methods, and processes, including methodology for best fit (newer workloads, operating environments, "fit for purpose," etc.).
Determine which tools are used to compare different platforms: Sizing, TCO analysis, etc. (RACE, Eagle).

z Systems Features and Architecture 38%
Describe z Systems models (z13, z13s).
Describe LinuxONE models (Emperor and Rockhopper).
Describe currently marketed z Systems, operating systems (z/OS, z/VM, and Linux), and related system software, middleware, and compilers.
Describe z Systems virtualization (PR/SM, z/VM, DPM, KVM).
Describe z Systems specialty engines (IFL, zIIP, ICF) use and benefits.
Describe z Systems permanent and temporary capacity offerings (CoD, Capacity Provisioning, CBU).
Describe z Systems security offerings (RACF, PKI, Crypto, TKE).
Describe z Systems storage compatibility options for z/OS, z/VM and Linux on z Systems.
Describe z Systems connectivity options (I/O such as FICON, OSA, RoCE, zEDC and coupling links such as Infiniband, Integrated Coupling Adapter).
Describe z Systems performance improvements (HiperDispatch, zHPF, Out of Order Execution, Flash Express, Large Memory).
Describe z Systems architectural enhancements (SIMD, SMT, new instructions, Chip/Cache structure, PCIe, IFP, IBM zAware, Secure Service Container).
Describe z Systems modernization of legacy applications (new architecture and deployment).
Describe z Systems systems management (HMC, SE, zOSMF, SMF, RMF, IBM WAVE, etc.).
Describe software pricing options under z/OS, z/VM, and Linux on z Systems.

z Systems Solutions 17%
Security: Identify those things in a z Systems environment that protect networks, data, and applications.
Security: Identify common methods to reduce risk exposure in encryption and cryptography.
Security: Discuss gaps in the customer security environment in data security (encryption, data-at-rest, data-in-motion, permissions/access, etc.).
Security: Identify tools, resources and products which monitor, track and secure data, applications, and systems, and differentiate when they are used. (zSecure, crypto coprocessors, IBM Multi-Factor Authentication for z/OS (MFA), etc.).
Security: Given a customer situation, select the security solution (including processes, products, tools and services) which most closely matches the customer requirements.
Cloud: Identify the characteristics of a cloud environment (elastic, broad network access, pooled/shared resources, measured usage/resources).
Cloud: Position cloud solutions on z Systems that differentiate it from cloud solutions on other platforms (elements that are unique to z Systems, such as cryptography, RAS, Capacity on Demand).
Cloud: Position cloud virtualization solutions on z Systems that differentiate it from cloud solutions on other platforms.
Cloud: Describe hybrid cloud characteristics.
Analytics: Describe the unique values of data intensive workloads on z Systems including reliability, availability, security and scalability.
Blockchain: Describe the capabilities and benefits of Blockchain.

This exam has an Assessment Exam option: A9030-644 Assessment: IBM z Systems Technical Support V7

Assessment exams are web-based exams that provides you, at a cheaper costs, the ability to check your skills before taking the certification exam.
This assessment exam is available in: English, Japanese

Passing the exam does not award you a certification, and it is only used to help you assess if you are ready or not to take the certification exam.

You can register for it at Pearson VUE and it will provide you a score report, showing you how you did in each section.

All IBM certification tests presume a certain amount of "on-the-job" experience which is not present in any classroom or Web presentation. The recommended courses and links will help you gain the skill and product knowledge represented in the test objectives. They do�? not teach the answers to the test questions, and are not intended to do so. This information may not cover all subject areas in the certification test, or may contain more recent information than is present in the certification test. Taking these or any classes will not guarantee that you will achieve certification

IBM z Systems Technical Support V7�? certification�? preparation education can be found at the sites below.�? �? �? �?

IBMers:�? �? IBM Systems Academy

Business Partners or Clients:�? IBM PartnerWorld University

QUESTION 1
A customer wants to concurrently add a central processor (CP) to a running z/OS LPAR, but has no reserved processors defined.
What must they do to add this additional processor to the LPAR?

A. Dynamically update and activate the new profile.
B. Invoke Change Running System on HMC/SE (Support Element) to add the CP to the running LPAR.Configure the CP online in z/OS.
C. Configure a CP online in z/OS.
D. Take down the LPAR and deactivate the current profile.Update the profile with the number of processors needed.Activate the new profile and IPL the LPAR.

Answer: D

Explanation:
With a proper PFT (Profile table entry) you can add CP, ZIIP, IFL, and ICSF processor to an LPAR.
References: IBM z13 and IBM z13s Technical Introduction (March 2016), page 90


QUESTION 2
Which functionality provides a high speed networking link for sharing data using server-to-server communications, at low latency, and with lower CPU overhead than traditional TCP/IP communications?

A. SMC-R
B. zEDC
C. OSA Express5S
D. High performance FICON

Answer: A

Explanation:
With SMC-R, System z network capability takes a new leap, strengthening performance for sharing data and reducing data transmission network overhead. The new System z®
RDMA over Converged Ethernet (RoCE) feature — 10GbE RoCE Express—enables industry-standard RDMA capability on the System z platform. As an RDMA-capable network interface card (RNIC), it can transfer data using direct memory-to-memory communication, reducing the CPU overhead of the networking software stack. SMC-R provides application transparent exploitation of this new RoCE feature reducing the network overhead and latency of data transfers, effectively offering the benefits of optimized network performance across processors. This breakthrough also lowers the CPU cost associated when moving large amounts of data.


QUESTION 3
What is hybrid cloud?

A. It is a compute cloud that mixes compute nodes with different CPU architectures.
B. It is an laaS cloud that provides instances with different operating systems.
C. It is an architecture that combines public and private clouds.
D. It is an laaS cloud that provides ephemeral storage only.

Answer: C

Explanation:
A hybrid cloud is an integrated cloud service utilizing both private and public clouds to perform distinct functions within the same organization.
References: https://www.interoute.com/what-hybrid-cloud


QUESTION 4
Which IBM z Systems technology is the foundation of the IBM Bluemix-based Blockchain service High Security Business Network (HSBN)?

A. Hyperedger Fabric
B. Docker
C. KVM
D. Secure Service Container

Answer: A

Explanation:
Blockchain is based on the industry standard Open Linux Foundation Hyperledger.

References: https://www.digitalmarketplace.service.gov.uk/g-cloud/services/862468845018056



Thursday 2 November 2017

HPE6-A43 Implementing Aruba Location Services

Exam ID:  HPE6-A43
Exam type: Proctored
Exam duration:  1 hour 30 minutes
Exam length: 70 questions
Passing score:  73%
Delivery languages: English
Related certifications : Aruba Certified Engagement and Analytics Professional (ACEAP) V1

Exam description
This exam tests your knowledge and skills with the Meridian product line and Aruba Location Services with Aruba Beacons. This includes Meridian AppMaker and SDK, maps and app content creation, how to troubleshoot deployment and Aruba Location Services Beacon configurations, and the ability to configure Aruba BLE Beacons. This exam also tests your integration knowledge and skills with the Analytics and Location Engine (ALE) and ClearPass.

Ideal candidate for this exam
Typical candidates for this exam are networking IT professionals or technical marketing professionals who know how to design and deploy Meridian location solutions with location and proximity beacons, and how to use the Meridian platform to develop a mobile application.

Exam contents
This exam has 70 questions.
Advice to help you take this exam

Complete the training and review all course materials and documents before you take the exam.
Exam items are based on expected knowledge acquired from job experience, an expected level of industry standard knowledge, or other prerequisites (events, supplemental materials, etc.).
Successful completion of the course alone does not ensure you will pass the exam.
Read this HPE Exam Preparation Guide and follow its recommendations.

Read the entire question and consider all options before you answer. If the question includes an exhibit, study the exhibit and read the question again. Select the answer that fully responds to the question. If the question asks for more than one answer, select all correct answers. There is no partial credit.

Objectives
This exam validates that you can:
Sections/Objectives 31%
Build Meridian Apps 33%
Deploy and Install Beacons 15%
Operate, Manage, and Maintain Beacons 7%
Troubleshoot Aruba Location Services 8%
Integrate ALE and Analytics 6%
Integrate ClearPass



QUESTION 1
Where can an app developer configure and reset campaigns?

A. Campaigns can be configured and reset in the Meridian Editor
B. Campaigns can be configured and reset in the Meridian Editor and configured in the Beacons App
C. Campaigns can be configured in the Meridian Editior and reset in the Beacons App
D. Campaigns can be configured and reset in the Beacons App

Answer: B


QUESTION 2
A retail customer does not have an Aruba location services deployment out has an existing Aruba Wi-Fi network with an Aruba 7210 controller with AP-205. The customer has identified six locations around its retail store where they would like to implement campaign push notifications. The customer also requires beacon management.
Which product mix is most suitable for this customer to achieve the goals of proximity push notifications as well as beacon management?

A. six AP-215s and six battery-powered beacons
B. six AP-325S
C. six AP-275S and six USB management beacons
D. six battery-powered beacons

Answer: B


QUESTION 3
Which analytics tool uses Wi-Fi connections to gather information about clients, such as associations and unassociated clients?

A. Aruba Beacons app
B. ALE
C. Airwave
D. Aruba Sensor

Answer: D


QUESTION 4
An app developer wants to change the layout of pages in a Meridian powered app. Which setting in AppMaker should the app developer modify to change the page layout?

A. Page format
B. Page style
C. Page layout
D. Page type

Answer: C


QUESTION 5
What is the main use of ALE?

A. to create a mobile device app
B. to provide location analytics from Wi-Fi information
C. to interact with AirWave to provide RF heatmaps
D. to gather location analytics from beacons

Answer: D


Tuesday 31 October 2017

SY0-501 CompTIA Security+ (501)

Exam Details
Exam Codes SY0-401 SY0-501
Launch Date May 1, 2014 October ​4, 2017

Exam Description The CompTIA Security+ exam will certify the successful candidate has the knowledge and skills required to install and configure systems to secure applications, networks, and devices; perform threat analysis and respond with appropriate mitigation techniques; participate in risk mitigation activities; and operate with an awareness of applicable policies, laws, and regulations. The successful candidate will perform these tasks to support the principles of confidentiality, integrity, and availability.

Number of Questions Maximum of 90 questions
Type of Questions Multiple choice and performance-based
Length of Test 90 minutes
​Passing Score 750 (on a scale of 100-900)
Recommended Experience CompTIA Network+ and two years of experience in IT administration with a security focus
Languages English, Japanese, Portuguese and Simplified Chinese. English (Japanese, Portuguese and Simplified Chinese estimated Q2 2018)

Retirement
English retirement: July 31, 2018;
Japanese, Portuguese and Simplified Chinese: December 15, 2018
Usually three years after launch
CompTIA Security+ is the certification globally trusted to validate foundational, vendor-neutral IT security knowledge and skills. As a benchmark for best practices in IT security, this certification covers the essential principles for network security and risk management – making it an important stepping stone of an IT security career.

Jobs that use Security+
Security Specialist/Administrator
Security ​Consultant
Security or ​Systems ​Administrator
Network ​Administrator

Companies that use CompTIA Security+ include:
Apple
Dell
HP
IBM
Intel
U.S. Department of Defense

4 Steps to a Cybersecurity Career
Want more CompTIA Security+ information?

Overview
IT security is paramount to organizations as cloud computing and mobile devices have changed the way we do business. With the massive amounts of data transmitted and stored on networks throughout the world, it’s essential to have effective security practices in place. That’s where CompTIA Security+ comes in. Get the Security+ certification to show that you have the skills to secure a network and deter hackers and you’re ready for the job.

Security+ is government approved
CompTIA Security+ meets the ISO 17024 standard and is approved by U.S. Department of Defense to fulfill Directive 8570.01-M requirements. It is compliant with government regulations under the Federal Information Security Management Act (FISMA).

Security+ is globally recognized
CompTIA Security+ is a globally recognized credential with certified professionals working in over 147 countries throughout the world.

Security+ provides substantial earnings potential
According to the Bureau of Labor Statistics, Security Specialists, Administrators and Managers earn over $86,000 per year.

Security+ is industry supported
Security+ is developed and maintained by leading IT experts. Content for the exams stems from a combination of industry-wide survey feedback and contributions from our team of subject matter experts. Learn more about the people behind the CompTIA Security+ Advisory Committee.

Certkingdom.com is CompTIA’s intelligent online learning tool to help you learn for your Security+ exam. It can verify what you already know and fill in knowledge where you need it. It’s a great addition to your learning prep and will be your guide on your path to master the Security+ curriculum.

Training Materials
There’s a wealth of training materials available that match your learning needs and learning style. Whether you are studying on your own, or in a classroom environment, we recommend CompTIA Authorized Quality Curriculum (CAQC) training materials that will help you get ready for your certification exam and pass the test.

For all training options, visit our training overview.

Instructor-Led Training
Instructor-led training provides a comfortable teaching environment with instructors that are familiar with the certification process and can help you master your certification exam. Find your instructor now.

Ready for the Test?
When you’ve completed your training and you know you can take your certification exam with confidence, head over to the CompTIA Marketplace and purchase your exam voucher that you will need to sign up for the test.

Once you’ve purchased your voucher, you can find a testing location and schedule your test.

Renewal
Keep your certification up to date with CompTIA’s Continuing Education (CE) program. It’s designed to be a continued validation of your expertise and a tool to expand your skillset. It’s also the ace up your sleeve when you’re ready to take the next step in your career.

Get the most out of your certification
Information technology is an incredibly dynamic field, creating new opportunities and challenges every day. Participating in our Continuing Education program will enable you to stay current with new and evolving technologies and remain a sought-after IT and security expert.

The CompTIA Continuing Education program
Your CompTIA Security+ certification is good for three years from the day of your exam. The CE program allows you to extend your certification in three-year intervals through activities and training that relate to the content of your certification. Like Security+ itself, CompTIA Security+ ce also carries globally-recognized ISO/ANSI accreditation status.

It’s easy to renew
You can participate in a number of activities and training programs, including higher certifications, to renew your CompTIA Security+ certification. Collect at least 50 Continuing Education Units (CEUs) in three years, upload them to your certification account, and Security+ will automatically renew.


QUESTION 1
A security analyst wishes to increase the security of an FTP server. Currently, all trails to the FTP server is unencrypted. Users connecting to the FTP server use a variety of modem FTP client software. The security analyst wants to keep the same port and protocol, while also still allowing unencrypted connections. Which of the following would BEST accomplish these goals?

A. Require the SFTP protocol to connect to the file server.
B. Use implicit TLS on the FTP server.
C. Use explicit FTPS for the connections.
D. Use SSH tunneling to encrypt the FTP traffic.

Answer: B


QUESTION 2
A company has three divisions, each with its own networks and services. The company decides to make its secure web portal accessible to all employees utilizing their existing usernames and passwords, The security administrator has elected to use SAML to support authentication. In this scenario, which of the following will occur when users try to authenticate to the portal? (Select TWO)

A. B. The portal will function as an identity provider and issue an authentication assertion
B. C. The portal will request an authentication ticket from each network that is transitively trusted
C. D. The back-end networks will function as an identity provider and issue an authentication assertion
D. The back-end networks will request authentication tickets from the portal, which will act as the third-party service provider authentication store
E. F. The back-end networks will verify the assertion token issued by the portal functioning as the identity provider

Answer: C


QUESTION 3
Which of the following would a security specialist be able to determine upon examination of a server's certificate?

A. CA public key
B. Server private key
C. CSR
D. OID

Answer: B

Saturday 28 October 2017

C8060-220 IBM Watson Customer Engagement: Watson Supply Chain

Number of questions: 60
Number of questions to pass: 36
Time allowed: 120 mins

This multiple-choice test contains questions requiring single and multiple answers. For multiple-answer questions, you need to choose all required options to get the answer correct. You will be advised how many options make up the correct answer.
This test is designed to provide diagnostic feedback on the Examination Score Report, correlating back to the test objectives, informing the test taker how he or she did on each section of the test. As a result, to maintain the integrity of each test, questions and answers are not distributed.

The test contains five sections totalling 60 multiple-choice questions. The percentages after each section title reflect the approximate distribution of the total question set across the sections.
Approximately 40% of the test questions are either platform-agnostics, or applicable to both UNIX and Windows platforms. This exam does contain questions that are platform-specific. To help you prepare, please note the following:
(1)Questions in this objective cover some z/OS content
(2)Questions in this objective cover only UNIX content
(3)Questions in this objective cover only Windows content

Section 1 - Architecture and Planning 17%
Understand the product functionalities and benefits of using Sterling Connect:Direct.
Describe basic architecture of Sterling Connect:Direct and its components.(1)
Identify environment components that interact with Connect:Direct (e.g. load balancers, firewalls, database for Connect:Direct on Microsoft Windows).(2)
Identify system requirements using worksheets.(3)
Explain the different methods used by Sterling Connect:Direct to store configurations on each platform.
Apply TCP/IP concepts.(1)
Solve a situation that has high availability requirements.

Section 2 - Installation and Configuration 25%
Apply installation procedure.(2)
Configure initialization parameters.
Modify configuration files (e.g. API, functional authorities, translation tables).(2)
Configure remote nodes in the Network Map.
Configure local and remote user and proxy authentication.(2)
Verify installations.(2)
Deploy patches for maintenance.(2)
Identify Sterling Connect:Direct File Agent usage.
Perform silent installs and mass rollouts.(3)
Explain the use of checkpointing.
Explain the use of cyclic redundancy check (CRC).
Implement clustering or high availability.

Section 3 - Deployment Operations (Process Language Scripting) 17%
Describe different methodologies to write processes (e.g. requestor, browser, text editor).(1)
Explain Process Language statements and logic flow.(2)
Solve a situation using code pages.
List different ways to submit processes.
Understand the structure of SYSOPTS on different platforms.(1)
Use binary and text transfers.(1)
Solve a situation of moving data between disparate platforms.(1)
Explain the use of Sterling Connect:Direct File Agent for automation.(1)

Section 4 - Administration (Monitoring, Maintenance and Tuning) 21%
Use Connect:Direct Requestor.(3)
Use Command Line Interface (CLI).
Use ISPF interface (IUI). (for z/OS)(1)
Determine the process completion.
Utilize and maintain statistics files or databases.(2)
Understand Sterling Connect:Direct utilities.(1)
Determine trace options.
Manage and control Sterling Connect:Direct process queues.(2)
Identify tuning requirements.
Identify and apply the appropriate software patches.(3)

Section 5 - Security 20%
Explain local authentication and user roles (e.g. admin versus general user).
Explain the different methods of remote user authentication (e.g. password, RACF, local versus proxy, snodeid, security exit).(1)
Understand the process to create, request and validate x.509 certificates.
Implement the Sterling Connect:Direct Secure STS protocol.
Use different methods for maintaining security on Sterling Connect:Direct Secure (e.g. spadmin, SPCLI, Sterling Control Center).(2)
Troubleshoot x.509 certificate issues (e.g. Sterling Connect:Direct traces).
Implement Sterling External Authentication Server for Connect:Direct.(3)
Implement FIPS option.

PartnerWorld Code: 15003801
Replaces PW Code: Not Applicable

Status: Live
This intermediate level certification is intended for administrators and implementers who are responsible for configuring, troubleshooting and deploying IBM Sterling Connect:Direct with focus on the Microsoft Windows 4.6 and UNIX 4.1 platforms. Some basic understanding of the z/OS 5.1 platform is required.

These technical professionals are also required to have conceptual understanding of the Microsoft Windows, UNIX, z/OS Operating Systems.

An administrator or implementer who passes this exam is able to install and configure IBM Sterling Connect:Direct, and provide:

knowledge of the Sterling Connect:Direct components that interact with the user interface that allows submission, execution and monitoring of Sterling Connect:Direct.
a comprehensive set of managed file transfer capabilities to facilitate data growth, use of automation, reduce security risk, and improve IT and business efficiency.
an understanding of secure connections between trading partners with customers, suppliers and business partners.
visibility and tracking of business data with customers, suppliers and business partners.
visibility for status of sent and received business transactions.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills
Before preparing for this certification, the following knowledge and skills are recommended and assumed:

conceptual understanding of operating systems
basic understanding of firewalls, load balancers and high availability (clustering)
basic understanding of network connectivity
basic understanding security, certificates and encryption

In preparing for this certification, the following IBM course(s) are recommended to further improve your skills:
6C02G: IBM Sterling Connect Direct for Unix V4.2.0
6C03G: IBM Sterling Connect Direct for Windows V4.7 Fundamentals


QUESTION: 1
Which component is invoked to stop Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX?

A. Security Exit
B. User Manager
C. Session Manager
D. Process Manager

Answer: D

QUESTION: 2
In Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows, which parameter is required when configuring a remote node using Advanced
Program to Program Communication (APPC)?

A. Partner LU Name
B. Alternate Comminfo
C. Host Name/IP Address
D. UDT communication path name

Answer: A

QUESTION: 3
In Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX, in which path is the file ndmproc located?

A. ndm/|ib/
B.r1dm/blr1/
C. ndm/cfg/cIiapi/
D.r1dm/cfg/cd_r1ode/

Answer: B

QUESTION: 4
In Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX, an administrator is setting up multiple nodes in a load balancing environment on
a cluster file system (not an NFS). The administrator needs to specify a shared area where the multiple nodes can
place return code files and copy checkpoint information, so that the various nodes are aware of activity. What
parameter is used to specify this?

A. ndm.path
B. comm.info
C. quiesce.resume
D. snode.work.path

Answer: D

Friday 20 October 2017

C9020-563 IBM System Storage DS8000 Technical Solutions V5

Number of questions: 60
Number of questions to pass: 34
Time allowed: 120 mins

This exam consists of 4 sections described below.

Customer Requirements 20%
Identify customer business drivers and goals.
Identify customer technology requirements.
Identify constraints in the customer's physical environment.

Pre-sales Technical Support 27%
Describe differences between IBM DS8000 and other IBM storage products.
Given a scenario, describe when to select IBM DS8000 as the preferred IBM storage product.
Describe technical capabilities of the IBM DS8000 system.
Compare IBM DS8000 advantages over competitor products.

Solution Architecture 33%
Given a scenario, configure a system to meet a customer requirements.
Given a scenario, ensure a solution is supported in a customer's SAN and server infrastructure.
Determine the capacity required to support multiple platforms.
Given a scenario, design a solution to meet the desired performance of a storage subsystem.
Given a scenario, architect a solution that includes other advanced functions of the IBM DS8000.
Given a scenario, architect a replication solution in metro, global, three-site and four-site environments including sizing of connectivity requirements and copy services.
Given a scenario, determine required licenses.
Identify requirements and benefits of additional external software.
Given a scenario, conduct a TDA of an IBM DS8000.

Solution Design and Implementation 20%
Describe how to perform administrative tasks in the CLI and GUI in the IBM DS8000.
Describe license management in the IBM DS8000.
Given a scenario, design the logical configuration in the IBM DS8000.
Given a scenario, determine sizing requirements of a design.
Given a scenario, design host access in the IBM DS8000.
Given a scenario, design detailed point-in-time copy solution and remote copy services solution.
Describe remote support capabilities in the IBM DS8000.
Describe local alerting features and functions in the IBM DS8000.
Describe security features and functions in the IBM DS8000.
Given a scenario, describe processes, procedures, or resources to help resolve installation and implementation issues related to the IBM DS8000.
Describe additional IBM fee-based services and resources.

PartnerWorld Code: 23002405
Replaces PW Code: Not Applicable

Status: Live
This IBM System Storage DS8000 Technical Solutions specialist can work independently to provide pre-sales technical support, solution design, and implementation planning for the IBM System Storage DS8000 in an open systems and/or IBM z Systems mainframe environment to meet customer requirements. This specialist can also identify customer requirements and architect and design appropriate solutions to meet the requirements.

IBM products included on this certification exam include IBM DS8000, IBM DS8884, IBM DS8886, IBM DS8888, IBM SAN, IBM Spectrum Control, IBM Spectrum Protect and IBM SAN Volume Controller with IBM Spectrum Virtualize software.
This specialist can perform the following tasks without assistance: articulate the differences (from other IBM storage) and/or competitive advantages of currently marketed IBM System Storage DS8000 solutions in an IBM z Systems or open systems environment; correctly position the IBM DS8000 in the IBM storage solutions portfolio; be familiar with general features of current and previous IBM DS8000 systems for purposes of upgrades and compatibility; use IBM tools to size and design a configuration to meet requirements (Disk Magic, Capacity Magic, eConfig); take technical responsibility for the pre-sales and pre-installation Technical Delivery and Assurance (TDA) process; recommend options for advanced functions appropriate to the OS environment, e.g., Global Copy, FlashCopy, Metro Mirror, Global Mirror, Metro/Global Mirror, QoS, thin provisioning, z/OS Global Mirror, HyperSwap, dataset FlashCopy, PAV, zHPF, and distributed data backup; understand the architectural features, e.g., encryption, tiering, RAS, and VMware integration; verify the interoperability of the solution via SSIC in the customer environment; understand and position the integration with PowerHA, IBM Spectrum Storage family, GDPS, and other IBM products; possess knowledge of the IBM support organization and resources where to find assistance when needed; understand options available for migration and environments where they are applicable; have a basic understanding of LSS and how it relates to copy services.
This specialist can perform the following tasks with assistance: provide post-sales support of the solution; develop a migration strategy; work in heterogeneous operating system environments, e.g., mainframe and open systems; and design business continuity solutions.
This specialist can use the following tools and resources: Knowledge Center; Disk Magic; Capacity Magic; STAT; eConfig; TDAs; DS8000 GUI and DS8000 CLI; IBM Sales Manual; IBM Spectrum Control, Copy Services Manager, IBM Spectrum Protect Snapshot, and SKLM; System Storage Interoperation Center (SSIC); and Redbooks.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills

6 months experience in a DS8000 pre-sales technical support role
24 months or more general storage experience and enterprise class storage experience
Implement an IBM DS8000 system in an open systems or mainframe environment
Capability to work independently and effectively in complex environments

Requirements
This certification requires 1 exam

Exam Required:
Click on the link below to see exam details, exam objectives, suggested training and sample tests.
C9020-563 - IBM System Storage DS8000 Technical Solutions V5

QUESTION 1
A customer has two data centers and wants to plan for synchronous replication. Its telecommunications vendor has proposed different replication link bandwidths to choose from.
What must be considered when sizing the replication link?

A. Read I/Os per second on the primary system
B. Write MB/s on the primary system
C. The number of HBAs installed on the primary system
D. Capacity installed on the secondary system

Answer: A

Explanation:
References:
https://www.ibm.com/developerworks/community/blogs/storwizecopyservices/entry/sizingreplication?lang=en


QUESTION 2
A customer wants to use Global Mirror to replicate at 1000 kilometers but is concerned about the capacity at the remote site.
What is the minimum number of total copies of the data that must exist at the local and remote sites to support Global Mirror?

A. 4
B. 6
C. 2
D. 3

Answer: C

Explanation:
Global Mirror is a method of asynchronous, remote data replication between two sites that are over 300 kilometers (km) apart. It maintains identical data in both the source and target, where the source is located in one storage system and the target is located in another storage system. Using Global Mirror, your data exists on the second site that is more than 300 KM away, and can be restored to the first site.
References: https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SSSKXG_1.5.0/com.ibm.sspc_v15.doc/f rg_c_sspc_ct.html


QUESTION 3
What is a competitive advantage of IBM DS8880 Global Mirror versus EMC asynchronous remote replication?

A. No requirement for additional cache
B. No requirement for host software to manage consistency groups
C. No need for additional software to mix mainframe and open volumes in a single consistency group
D. No need to implement external time source

Answer: C


QUESTION 4
Which amperage option is available for the IBM DS8884 power cord?

A. 110 amp
B. 90 amp
C. 30 amp
D. 15 amp

Answer: C

Explanation:
The DS8884 configurations do not use more than 30 amps.
References: http://www-01.ibm.com/common/ssi/ShowDoc.wss?docURL=/common/ssi/rep_rp/1/ENUS8S1571/inde x.html&lang=en&request_locale=en

Friday 13 October 2017

C5050-287 Foundations of IBM Cloud Reference Architecture V5

Number of questions: 60
Number of questions to pass:
Time allowed: 90 mins

Section 1 - Cloud Computing Concepts and Benefits
Define the cloud computing business advantages.
Define cloud architecture.
Describe considerations such as risk, cost and compliance around cloud computing.
Define automation as it pertains to cloud computing.
Define why standardization is important to cloud computing.
Define service catalog as it pertains to cloud computing.
Define a public cloud.
Define a private cloud.
Define a hybrid cloud.
Define the difference between a private cloud, a public cloud, and a hybrid cloud.
Define Software as a Service (SaaS).
Define Platform as a Service (PaaS).
Define Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS).
Define DevOps as it pertains to cloud computing.
Explain Maturity as it relates to SaaS, PaaS, and IaaS.
Explain the benefits of patterns as description of cloud services.
Define software defined environments as they relate to cloud computing.
Summarize how business processes can be automated in a cloud environment.

Section 2 - Cloud Computing Design Principles
Demonstrate base knowledge needed to advise on creating a cloud infrastructure.
Explain Cloud networking principles.
Explain Cloud storage principles such as block object file and storage area networks
Describe security strategies in a cloud computing environment.
Design principle for cloud ready applications including patterns, chef, puppet, and heat templates.
Design principles for cloud native applications such as open standards and 12-Factor app.
Design principles for DevOps.
Designing consumable applications for the cloud.
Define hybrid integration capabilities.
Define API Economy in Cloud Computing.
Define how solutions in the cloud can be more effective.
Explain to the customer how some popular billing models work and how they pertain to the software the customer has.
Describe principles for governance, compliance and service management.

Section 3 - IBM Cloud Reference Architecture
Explain the four defining principles of IBM Cloud.
Explain the benefits of using the IBM Cloud Reference Architecture (ICRA).
Explain the Cloud Platform Services for ICRA including containers, foundational services, etc.
Explain the Cloud Service Provider Adoption Pattern for ICRA.
Describe the ICRA Building SaaS cloud adoption pattern.
Explain the Hybrid patterns for ICRA
Describe the solution integration process detailed in the ICRA to take an existing environment to an IBM Cloud Computing environment.
Design a secure cloud service model using ICRA.
Describe high availability and disaster recovery as it pertains to cloud computing.
Describe actors and roles as defined in ICRA (Cloud Service Consumers, Cloud Service Creators, Cloud Service Provider, Cloud Services and the Common Cloud Management Platform).
Describe how IBM Service Management can effectively manage a customer's cloud environment.
Describe the IBM API management capabilities.
Describe the role of governance in the ICRA.
Describe non-functional requirements (NFRs) as described by ICRA.
Explain the role of mobile as part of the ICRA.
Explain the Cognitive pattern as part of the ICRA.
Explain the IOT pattern as part of the ICRA.
Explain the DevOps pattern as part of the ICRA.
Explain the Big Data and Analytics pattern as part of the ICRA.

Section 4 - IBM Cloud Solutions
Describe the IBM capabilities for Cloud Managed Services.
Describe the IBM capabilities for hybrid integration.
Describe the IBM capabilities for video services.
Describe the IBM capabilities for cloud brokerage.
Describe the IBM capabilities for DevOps.
Describe the IBM capabilities for cloud native applications.
Describe the IBM capabilities for service management.
Describe the IBM capabilities for storage.
Describe the IBM capabilities for business process management.
Describe the IBM capabilities for the IBM Marketplace.

Overview
PartnerWorld Code: 50001105
Replaces PW Code: 50001104

Status: Live
An IBM Certified Solution Advisor - Cloud Reference Architecture V5 is a person who can clearly explain the benefits and underlying concepts of cloud computing. They can also demonstrate how the IBM Cloud solution offerings can help customers realize these benefits.

Key areas of competency include:
Explain cloud computing concepts.
Describe how the customer can realize the benefits of cloud computing within their environment.
Identify IBM Cloud architecture and design principles.
Map customer's requirements to the IBM Cloud solution offerings.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills

The following qualifications are requirements for success:
Working knowledge of cloud principles and architecture
Working knowledge of the various cloud deployment models
Working knowledge of the various types of "as a service" offerings
Working knowledge of various cloud business models
Working knowledge of key concerns and how they are addressed in cloud such as security, compliance, performance, storage, and data.
Working knowledge of emerging trends in cloud computing such as API economy, big data and analytics, internet of things, microservices, and mobile.
Working knowledge of the IBM Cloud Reference Architecture and associated adoption patterns.
Working knowledge of the IBM Cloud solution offerings.

Requirements
This certification requires 1 exam

Exam Required:
Click on the link below to see exam details, exam objectives, suggested training and sample tests.

C5050-287 - Foundations of IBM Cloud Reference Architecture V5
QUESTION: No: 1
Which technology best supports application portability?

A. docker containers
B. OpenFIow
C. docker stacks
D. OpenDayIight

Answer: A


QUESTION: No: 2
What challenge of hybrid cloud environments is addressed by IBM solutions like IBM Cast Iron, IBM
MobiIeFirst platform integration and IBM API Management?

A. lack of workload portability
B. integration of systems of engagement and systems of record
C. service management of provisioned systems
D. mobile applications security in hybrid cloud environments

Answer: B


QUESTION: No: 3
What is the principal reason that continuous testing is necessary in the agile world?

A. So that multiply teams can get better utilization out of testing environments
B. To bridge the gap between slow and fast speed IT development
C. For supports the large volume and high frequency of changes driven by cloud native development approaches
D. To ensure application interoperability across public cloud providers.

Answer: B


QUESTION: No: 4
What are three essential cloud characteristics?

A. broad network access
B. on-demand self Service
C. economies of scale
D. measured service
E. vendor lock-in prevention
F. workload virtualization

Answer: A, B, D

Friday 6 October 2017

C5050-062 Rational UrbanCode Deploy

Test information:
Number of questions: 70
Time allowed in minutes: 75
Required passing score: 70%
Languages: English, Japanese, Japanese

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Deployment Professional - Rational UrbanCode Deploy

Section 1: How UrbanCode Deploy fits within IBM DevOps
Recognize and describe the IBM approach to DevOps
Identify and describe the capabilities that UrbanCode Deploy delivers to IBM DevOps
Identify and describe the concepts and challenges of continuous software delivery in a DevOps context

Section 2: Implementing Security in UrbanCode Deploy
Use UC Deploy to configure group and team roles
Use UC Deploy to configure External security realms including LDAP, Active Directory and SSO.
Identify the features of the security model used by UC Deploy

Section 3: Programming and Plugins
Determine the various types of plugins for UC Deploy
Use automation and source configuration plugins in UC Deploy
Update and delete plugins in UC Deploy

Section 4: UrbanCode Deploy Architecture
Identify the concepts of Resources, Resource Groups, Agents, Agent Relays Agent Pools
Recognize the concepts of Applications, Components, Snapshots, Versions and Artifacts
Recognize the elements of the Basic Usage Model of UrbanCode Deploy and the flow of operations including configuration of the deployment environment, development, deploy to the pipeline and chaining of environment deployments

Section 5: UrbanCode Deploy Integrations
Identify UC Deploy integration capabilities with other products
Identify UC Deploy and Cloud integration capabilities

Section 6: Using UrbanCode Deploy
Determine the requirements for product installation
Use UC Deploy to create and configure Applications and related Environments, Processes, Approvals, +Notifications and Properties
Use UC Deploy to create and configure Components and related artifacts, properties and versions
Use UC Deploy to create snapshots
Use UC Deploy to create and configure Resources and related Agents, Subresources, Resource Roles and +Resource Templates
Identify and describe the concepts of Inventory, Compliancy and Model-driven Deployments

IBM Certified Deployment Professional - Rational UrbanCode Deploy

Job Role Description / Target Audience
This certification targets intermediate level Deployment Professionals. This Deployment Professional can plan, install, configure and troubleshoot a new implementation of the UrbanCode Deploy product. The Deployment Professional can also upgrade, update, configure and troubleshoot existing installations of UrbanCode Deploy.

The Deployment Professional should have an intermediate level of knowledge of UrbanCode Deploy and a firm understanding of how UrbanCode Deploy can be implemented in a small and simple environment as well as a large and complex environment. The Deployment Professional can train, tutor and mentor IBM customers in the installation, configuration and ongoing use of UrbanCode Deploy. The Deployment Professional can perform most of these tasks independently and may require some assistance from peers and vendor support services.

Requirements
This certification requires 1 test(s).
QUESTION: No: 1
A security type is a product area that can have permissions defined for it. Each security type has a set of
permissions that affect how users interact with it. How many security types are available in IBM
Urban Code Deploy?

A. 13
B. 10
C. 3
D. 5

Answer: D

Explanation:
A security type is a product area that has permissions defined for it. There are several security types predefined. They are system, application, release, deployment, status, and initiatives and changes.
Other than the Status security type, permissions are predefined.

References:
http://vvww.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SS4GCC_6.2.1/com.ibm.ureIease.doc/topics/security_types.htmI


QUESTION: No: 2
In orderto set up an integration with WebSphere, you first perform a WebSphere Topology Discovery.
WebSphere is not installed in a default location and so you must notify IBNI UCD concerning the location
of the wsadmin executable. What is the name of the property thatyou must set, and where do you set it?

A. You must set the wsadmin.Iocation property on the correct resource.
B. You must set the wsadmin.path property on the correct agent.
C. You must set the wsadmin.executabIe on the correct resource.
D. You must set the wsadmin.Iocation on the correct agent.

Answer: B

Explanation:
If WebSphere Application Server is deployed in a directory otherthan the default directory, you must set a property on the agent before you can run the WebSphere Topology Discovery step.

1. Go to Resources > Agents > <agent-name> > Configuration > Agent Properties.
2. Add a property named wsadmin.path.
3. Set wsadmin.path to the fully qualified path tothe wsadmin script (including the script name).

References:
http://vvww.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SS4GSP_6.0.1/com.ibm.udepIoy.pIugins.doc/topics/pIu gins_websphereportaI_config_depIoy.htmI

Thursday 21 September 2017

C2150-612 IBM Security QRadar SIEM V7.2.6 Associate Analyst

Test information:
Number of questions: 54
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 66%
Languages: English, Japanese

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Associate Analyst - Security QRadar SIEM V7.2.6

The test consists of 5 sections containing a total of approximately 54 multiple-choice questions. The percentages after each section title reflect the approximate distribution of the total question set across the sections.

Section 1 - General Networking and QRadar SIEM concepts (17%)
Compare different protocols, traffic types, and port numbers.
Describe and illustrate log source types.
Compare the different event log transport methods.
Discuss security device concepts (firewall, IDS/IPS, Proxy, Authentication devices, and antivirus software).
Explain how environment information can be used to enrich event and flow data intelligently.
Explain data normalization and categorization.
Enumerate the common characteristics of a SIEM.

Section 2 - QRadar basics (26%)
Explain the different types of correlations (CRE and ADE).
Illustrate the function of a DSM.
Explain how Log sources, flow sources, vulnerability scanners, and reference data are used in Qradar.
Compare flows to events.
Explain QRadar network hierarchy and how it aids in "seeing the whole picture" .
Describe additional QRadar add-on components (QVM, QRM, QRIF).
Distinguish offenses from triggered rules.
Distinguish search results from reports.
Distinguish rules from building blocks.
Compare rule responses and rule actions.
Explain the core system functionality of �Host Definition� building blocks.
Summarize QRadar Components; Console, Event Processor, Event Collector, Flow Processor, Data Nodes and Flow Collector.

Section 3 - QRadar login and navigation (13%)
Explain how to login to and navigate the GUI console.
Describe the types of information available on the DASHBOARD tab.
Describe the types of information available on the OFFENSES tab.
Describe the types of information available on the LOG ACTIVITY and NETWORK ACTIVITY tabs.
Describe the types of information available on the ASSETS tab.
Describe the types of information available on the REPORT tab.
Demonstrate the appropriate procedure to navigate to, from and within an offense.

Section 4 - QRadar functions and capabilities (18%)
Explain the different ways to assign offenses and add notation.
Summarize offense search functionalities.
Illustrate examples of dashboard customizations.
Distinguish right click functionality (plugins, information, navigate, other).
Demonstrate the use of right-click event filtering.
Explain how to explore the content of an event, review the normalized fields and the payload.
Show the Offense lifecycle.
Compare Event/Flow/Common/Offense/Anomaly/Behavioral/ Threshold Rules.
Demonstrate how to export Flow/Event data for external analysis.

Section 5 - QRadar data interpretation (26%)
Explain Offense details on offense details view.
Explain why payloads (raw data) may need to be reviewed.
Distinguish offenses from triggered rules.
Examine the differences between an offense magnitude and an event magnitude.
Describe how to run Reports and the formats in which they can be output.
Outline Offense Closing Procedures.
Discuss the Asset Database and how assets are profiled.
Outline simple Offense naming mechanisms (Removed: not testable).
Explain differences between various event/flow timestamps.
Understand the capabilities of different sources of flows.
Give examples of how QRadar can show different security concerns (i.e., Advanced Persistent Threat (APT), Brute Force, DDoS, etc.)
Describe coalescing.
Compare Standard Custom Properties, User-defined Custom Properties and Normalized properties.
Compare the different types of searches that can be performed (AQL, Quick Searches, and Searches via the Edit Search GUI panel).
Explain the information provided by flows.
Describe a use where flows provide more information than events.

IBM Certified Associate Analyst - Security QRadar SIEM V7.2.6

Job Role Description / Target Audience
This entry level certification is intended for security analysts who wish to validate their comprehensive knowledge of IBM Security QRadar SIEM V7.2.6.

These security analysts will understand basic networking, SIEM, and QRadar concepts, including how to login to, navigate within, explain capabilities of, and access, interpret, and report data in a QRadar deployment.

To attain the IBM Certified Associate Analyst - Security QRadar SIEM V7.2.6 certification, candidates must pass 1 test. To prepare for the test, it is recommended to refer to the job role description and recommended prerequisite skills, and click the link to the test below to refer to the test objectives and the test preparation tab.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills

Basic knowledge of:
SIEM concepts
TCP/IP networking and protocols
network security concepts
internet security attack types
compliance and audit requirements
incident management and response

Requirements
This certification requires 1 test(s).

QUESTION: No: 1
Where can a user add a note to an offense in the user interface?

A. Dashboard and Offenses Tab
B. Offenses Tab and Offense Detail Window
C. Offenses Detail Window, Dashboard, and Ad min Tab
D. Dashboard, Offenses Tab, and Offense Detail Window

Answer: B

QUESTION: No: 2
When might a Security Analyst want to review the payload of an event?

A. When immediately after login, the dashboard notifies the analyst of payloads that must be investigated
B. When "Review payload" is added to the offense description automatically by the "System: Notification" rule
C. When the event is associated with an active offense, the payload may contain information that is not normalized or extracted fields
D. When the event is associated with an active offense with a magnitude greater than 5, the payload should be reviewed, otherwise it is not necessary

Answer: C

QUESTION: No: 3
Which key elements does the Report Wizard use to help create a report?

A. Layout, Container, Content
B. Container, Orientation, Layout
C. Report Classification, Time, Date
D. Pagination Option, Orientation, Date

Answer: A

QUESTION: No: 4
How is an event magnitude calculated?

A. As the sum of the three properties Severity, Credibility and Relevance of the Event
B. As the sum of the three properties Severity, Credibility and Importance of the Event
C. As a weighted mean of the three properties Severity, Credibility and Relevance of the Event
D. As a weighted mean of the three properties Severity, Credibility and Importance of the Event

Answer: C

QUESTION: No: 5
What is a benefit of using a span port, mirror port, or network tap as flow sources for QRadar?

A. These sources are marked with a current timestamp.
B. These sources show the ASN number of the remote system .
C. These sources show the username that generated the flow.
D. These sources include payload for layer 7 application analysis.

Answer: D

Saturday 2 September 2017

Exam 70-735 OEM Manufacturing and Deployment for Windows 10

Published: June 19, 2017
Languages: English
Audiences: IT Professionals
Technology: Windows 10
Credit toward certification: MCP

Skills measured
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. The percentages indicate the relative weight of each major topic area on the exam. The higher the percentage, the more questions you are likely to see on that content area on the exam. View video tutorials about the variety of question types on Microsoft exams.

Please note that the questions may test on, but will not be limited to, the topics described in the bulleted text.

Do you have feedback about the relevance of the skills measured on this exam? Please send Microsoft your comments. All feedback will be reviewed and incorporated as appropriate while still maintaining the validity and reliability of the certification process. Note that Microsoft will not respond directly to your feedback. We appreciate your input in ensuring the quality of the Microsoft Certification program.

If you have concerns about specific questions on this exam, please submit an exam challenge.

If you have other questions or feedback about Microsoft Certification exams or about the certification program, registration, or promotions, please contact your Regional Service Center.

Prepare the Imaging Environment (20-25%)
Install deployment tools and scripts
Prepare the Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK), prepare the required tools from the Windows ADK installation
Add customizations to the image
Use tools to design an answer file that will add branding to the device, add OEM information such as support URL or phone support number, provide the default product key for OEM Activation implementation, set the default user languages, add the custom logo and wallpaper
Create a Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE)
Use the Windows ADK scripts to create the Windows PE source files, add optional packages, add default languages, add custom scripts, create a bootable USB or ISO file of the Windows PE, add device drivers

Service the Offline Image (40-45%)
Add drivers to the image
Choose the recommended installation paths for adding drivers, add INF-based drivers offline, add INF-based drivers from a folder path using deployment tools
Add language packs to the image
Distinguish the difference between a language pack and a language interface pack; determine when to use Feature on Demand language packs, how to apply the ordering of Feature on Demand language packs when adding new languages to the image, and which language packs should be applied to the Recovery image; set the default time zone in the image; set the default input and system locales in the image
Add update packages to the image
Choose which updates to apply, select which updates to apply to Windows image and Recovery image
Service in-box applications
Reapply in-box applications, select the appropriate dependency packages for each application bundle, troubleshoot installation failures, pin apps to Start layout and taskbar
Optimize the image
Mark updates in a Recovery image as permanent, export a Recovery image, set scratch space size, check the overall size of a Recovery image for partition layout schemes
Deploy the image
Select the disk partition layout, run DISM to apply the image, set up the recovery environment, boot into Audit mode for online servicing

Service the Online Image (35-40%)
Preinstall Office 2016
Prepare office files for preinstallation, create configuration files, add multiple languages, set up the first user experience
Create restore packages
Use ScanState to create restore packages of installed desktop applications, registry settings, and application settings
Prepare the recovery environment
Create extensibility scripts, create configuration files, create migration files, copy backup files to the recovery folder for Push Button Reset
Reseal the image
Use Sysprep to reseal the image to OOBE, boot to Windows PE for final capture, optimize the image for disk footprint, mark update packages as permanent, optimize the image for deployment, use deployment tools to capture the final image for mass deployment
Deploy and validate the image
Test the final image deployment, verify that settings are correct, the image passes system validation tests, and Push Button Reset restores the image to its correct state
QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You are building a new image of Windows 10 that contains a push-button reset solution.
You need to test whether push-button reset works as expected.
Solution: From Windows 10. you press and hold the SHIFT key, and then you restart the computer. After the computer restarts, you click Troubleshoot, and then you click Reset this PC.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: B


QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question Is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. Computer1 has the Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK) installed.
You are building a new image of Windows 10.
You copy the installation media for Windows 10 to Computer1.
You need to add drivers to the Windows 10 image.

A. Mount the Install.wim file.
B. Mount the Boot.wim file.
C. Modify the Winpeshl.ini file.
D. Create an answer file.
E. Modify the Windows.ini file.
F. Create a provisioning package.
G. Load a catalog file (.clg).
H. Create a cabinet file (.cab).

Answer: B


QUESTION 3
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
To provide the default product key for OEM activation, you create an answer file by using Windows System Image Manager (Windows SIM), and you add the Microsoft-Windows-Shell-Setup component and the ProductKey component to the generalize pass.
Review the underlined text. It it makes the statement correct, select "No change is needed." If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.

A. No change is needed
B. auditSystem pass
C. specialize pass
D. windowsPE pass

Answer: C


QUESTION 4
You deploy an image of Windows 10.
From audit mode, you install several applications for a customer, and then you run sysprep.exe /oobe /quit.
You need to identify whether any errors occurred when you ran sysprep.exe.
Which folder contains the log files?

A. %WINDIR%\Logs
B. %WlNDIR%\System32\LogFiles
C. %WINDIR%\Panther\
D. %WINDIR%\System32\Sysprep\Panther

Answer: D

Thursday 10 August 2017

C2150-205 IBM Security Directory Integrator Implementation V7.2

Test information:
Number of questions: 60
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 55%
Languages: English, French, Latin American Spanish, Portuguese (Brazil)

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Deployment Professional - Security Directory Integrator V7.2

Security Directory Integrator Concepts (23%)
Identify SDI components, data models, and tools used to provide solutions and integrations.
Identify the common Java objects that can be leveraged to build SDI solutions.
Identify various files that make up a SDI solution.
Identify how to use the System Store, Password Store, User Property Store, third-party RDBMS, and different modes of Derby to provide a SDI solution.
Identify the components and features for Delta Handling and Delta Detection in SDI.
Given a scenario, outline how to use Delta Handling components and features to create an AL that performs one-way synchronization.
Given a scenario, explain the different Connector modes and how they effect the flow of data through an SDI AL.
Given a scenario, identify where JavaScript can be used to manipulate data and the logic of the assembly line.
Given a scenario, explain the concepts, components, and capabilities of SDI password synchronization.
Given a scenario, describe how Assembly Lines can be monitored and controlled, i.e., Dashboard, +Administration and Monitoring Console (AMC), Action Manager (AM), etc.
Given a scenario, describe the AL lifecycle and the various operation modes when starting an AL.Given a scenario, describe the Initial Work Entry (IWE) and the Task Call Block (TCB).
Describe appropriate uses of Connectors in ALs.
Given a scenario to build a solution aligned with loosely coupled, service-oriented architecture and Interoperability standards, describe Server Mode and how it is used.

Planning and Architecture (13%)
Given a scenario, identify information you should know about a customer's IT environment so that you can design a compatible SDI solution.
Identify ways to implement change management.
Given a scenario about a running production environment and completed solution, export the solution, modify appropriate configuration files, stage the files and monitor the start of the solution, so that the solution has been moved into a production environment.
Given a scenario, explain different uses and ramifications of sharing a central data store between multiple ALs.
Given a scenario, explain how to plan for availability and performance, as well as exception/error reporting and auditing, in a robust and scalable SDI solution.

Installation and Configuration (12%)
Given a scenario, identify information you should know about a customer's IT environment so that you can design a compatible SDI solution.
Identify ways to implement change management.
Given a scenario about a running production environment and completed solution, export the solution, modify appropriate configuration files, stage the files and monitor the start of the solution, so that the solution has been moved into a production environment.
Given a scenario, explain different uses and ramifications of sharing a central data store between multiple ALs.
Given a scenario, explain how to plan for availability and performance, as well as exception/error reporting and auditing, in a robust and scalable SDI solution.

Assembly Line Development (30%)

Problem Determination (12%)
Given a scenario, use log analysis and exception stack traces to locate and identify key messages to isolate a problem source and interpret the root case of the exception.
Identify SDI debugger features.
Given a scenario, explain how an administrator addresses memory issues in the SDI server.
Given a scenario, explain how a Connector's connection issue can be handled by the SDI Server.

Federated Directory Server (10%)
Given a scenario, demonstrate use of the FDS console
Identify approaches to troubleshoot FDS
Identify key concepts, components, and architecture of Federated Directory Server.
Identify key concepts, components, and architecture of�a flow.
Identify key concepts, components, and architecture of endpoints

IBM Certified Deployment Professional - Security Directory Integrator V7.2

Job Role Description / Target Audience
An IBM Certified Deployment Professional for IBM Security Directory Server is an individual who has demonstrated the ability to design, implement, test, and support an IBM Security Directory Server solution. It is expected that this person is able to perform the tasks independently a majority of the time with limited assistance from peers, product documentation, and vendor support services and in some situations, take leadership and provide mentoring to peers.

Requirements
This certification requires 1 test(s).


Wednesday 2 August 2017

C2090-913 Informix 4GL Development

Test information:
Number of questions: 90
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 78%
Languages: English

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Solutions Expert -- Informix 4GL Developer

If you are a knowledgeable Informix 4GL Developer and are capable of performing the intermediate to advanced skills required to design and develop Informix database applications, you may benefit from this certification role.

Section 1 - Informix 4GL (18%)

Section 2 - Statements (28%)

Section 3 - Cursors and Memory (13%)

Section 4 - Creating a Help File: The mkmessage Utility (1%)

Section 5 - Creating a Report Driver (3%)

Section 6 - Defining Program Variables (3%)

Section 7 - Displaying Forms and Windows (4%)

Section 8 - Forms that use Arrays (4%)

Section 9 - Passing Values between Functions (6%)

Section 10 - procedural Logic (1%)

Section 11 - The REPORT Functions (3%)

Section 12 - The SQLCA Record (6%)

IBM Certified Solutions Expert -- Informix 4GL Developer

Job Role Description / Target Audience
If you are a knowledgeable Informix 4GL Developer and are capable of performing the intermediate to advanced skills required to design and develop Informix database applications, you may benefit from this certification role.

To attain the IBM Certified Solutions Expert - Informix 4GL Developer certification, candidates must pass 1 test.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills
Significant experience as an Informix 4GL Developer.


QUESTION 1
Which parts of the DISPLAY ARRAY statement are always required?

A. ON KEY keywords
B. screen array name
C. program array name
D. END DISPLAY keywords
E. DISPLAY ARRAY keywords
F. BEFORE DISPLAY keywords

Answer: B,C,E

Explanation:


QUESTION 2
What can the arr_count() library function be used to determine?

A. the current position in the screen array
B. the current position in the program array
C. the number of elements in the screen array
D. the number of elements in the program array

Answer: D

Explanation:


QUESTION 3
Which features are unique to the INPUT ARRAY statement?

A. BEFORE/AFTER ROW clause
B. BEFORE/AFTER INPUT clause
C. BEFORE/AFTER FIELD clause
D. BEFORE/AFTER DELETE clause
E. BEFORE/AFTER INSERT clause

Answer: A,D,E

Explanation:

Explanation:

Saturday 22 July 2017

C2090-625 IBM Cognos 10 BI Data Warehouse Developer

Test information:
Number of questions: 84
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 78%
Languages: English

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Developer - Cognos 10 BI Data Warehouses
IBM Certified Advanced Developer - Risk Information Governance for BI
IBM Certified Solution Expert - Cognos BI

The IBM Cognos 10 BI Data Warehouse Developer exam covers key concepts, technologies, and functionality of the Cognos products. In preparation for an exam, we recommend a combination of training and hands-on experience, and a detailed review of product documentation.

Data Manager and Data Warehousing (4%)
Identify how Data Manager can be used
Distinguish between OLTP systems and data warehouses

Catalogs and Data Source Connections (12%)
Describe the process of creating a catalog
Identify how to use SQLTerm
Describe how to configure text files using SQLTXT Designer
Describe how to package catalog components
Describe how to navigate through catalog components
Describe how to export catalog metadata to Cognos 8

Dimensions and Basic Hierarchies (7%)
Determine appropriate situations for using a hierarchy
Describe the use of the Reference Explorer tool
Describe the use of the Date Hierarchy wizard

Basic Dimension Builds and Fact Builds (12%)
Describe the types of builds
Describe the use of the Dimension Build wizard
Describe the process of creating a fact build
Describe the modification of build settings

Derivations and Derived Dimensions (6%)
Identify the benefits of creating a derivation
Determine the appropriate location to create a derivation
Identify when it would be useful to create a derived dimension

Conformed Dimensions (10%)
Describe the advantages of conformed dimensions
Describe surrogate keys
Describe how to deliver conformed dimensions
Describe how to check data integrity

Hierarchies and Lookups (8%)
Describe ways to modify hierarchies and lookups
Describe how to manipulate data using hierarchies and lookups
Dimensional History and Late Arriving Data (10%)
Describe the use of slowly changing dimensions (SCDs)
Describe the handling of late arriving fact and dimension data

Data Delivery and Data Processing (22%)
Describe delivering fact and dimension data
Describe how to merge and aggregate fact data
Describe how to restrict fact data delivery
Describe how to implement job control
Describe how to pivot fact data

User-Defined Functions (UDFs) and Variables (5%)
Describe how to create UDFs
Describe the use of variables

Troubleshooting and Tuning (4%)
Describe options to address memory and performance issues
Describe how to interpret the log files
QUESTION 1
Where can a developer define variables in Data Manager?

A. Metadata dimensions
B. Connections
C. JobStreams
D. Metadata collections

Answer: C


QUESTION 2
When delivering fact data to a text file, what can be specified?

A. Line and field delimiters
B. Whether the file is in ASCII or EBCDIC format
C. Maximum number of rows to be stored in the file
D. Default text editor to use with the file

Answer: A


QUESTION 3
What can be done to minimize memory consumption?

A. Disable dimension breaking on the fact build.
B. Disable fact build logging.
C. Enable dimension breaking on the fact build.
D. Enable auditing on the fact build.

Answer: C


QUESTION 4
Which of the following is true of the Navigator?

A. When searching for components, wildcards are not supported.
B. When a component is selected, dependent components are shown.
C. Library components (such as hierarchies) cannot be navigated.
D. Components from different catalogs can be compared.

Answer: B

Tuesday 6 June 2017

Exam 77-881 Word 2010

Published: June 30, 2010
Languages: English
Audiences: Information workers
Technology: Microsoft Office 2010 suites
Credit toward certification: Microsoft Office Specialist

Skills measured
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. The percentages indicate the relative weight of each major topic area on the exam. The higher the percentage, the more questions you are likely to see on that content area on the exam. View video tutorials about the variety of question types on Microsoft exams.

Please note that the questions may test on, but will not be limited to, the topics described in the bulleted text.

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Sharing and maintaining documents
Apply different views to a document
Selecting zoom options; splitting and arranging windows (view side by side, synchronous scrolling), document views (reorganizing a document outline, master documents, subdocuments, web layout, draft); switching windows; opening a document in a new window
Apply protection to a document
Applying protection by using the Microsoft Office Backstage view commands (applying controls and restrictions to document access, password-protecting a document, marking as final); applying protection by using ribbon commands
Manage document versions
Recovering draft versions; deleting all draft versions
Share documents
Sending documents via email, OneDrive, or Internet fax; changing file types; creating PDF documents; creating and publishing a blog post; registering a blog account
Save a document
Using compatibility mode, protected mode, and Save As options
Apply a template to a document
Finding templates (locating a template on your disk, finding templates on the web)

Preparation resources
Video: View the ruler and adjust zoom in Word Starter
Save a document in Word
Save a document to your OneDrive from Office 2010

Formatting content
Apply font and paragraph attributes
Applying character attributes; applying styles; using Format Painter
Navigate and search through a document
Using the Navigation Pane (headings, pages, results), Go To, browse by button, and Highlight features; setting Find and Replace options (format, special)
Apply indentation and tab settings to paragraphs
Applying indents (first line, hanging); setting tabs; using the Tabs dialog box; setting tabs on the ruler; clearing tabs; setting tab stops; moving tab stops
Apply spacing settings to text and paragraphs
Line spacing, paragraph spacing
Create tables
Using the Insert Table dialog box; using Draw Table; inserting a Quick Table; converting text to tables; using a table to control page layout
Manipulate tables in a document
Sorting content; adding a row to a table; adding a column to a table; splitting, merging, moving, resizing, and deleting a row or column; defining the header row; converting tables to text; viewing gridlines
Apply bullets to a document
Applying bullets; selecting a symbol format; defining a picture to be used as a bullet; using AutoFormat; promoting or demoting bullet levels

Preparation resources
Style basics in Word
Adjust the line spacing between text or paragraphs
Create a bulleted or numbered list

Applying page layout and reusable content
Apply and manipulate page setup settings
Setting margins, non-breaking spaces, hyphenation, and columns; working with breaks; forcing a page break; inserting a section break (continuous, next page, next odd, next even); inserting a blank page into a document
Apply themes
Using a theme to apply formatting; customizing a theme
Construct content in a document by using the Quick Parts tool
Adding built-in building blocks (quotes, text boxes, headers, footers, cover pages, watermarks, equations)
Create and manipulate page backgrounds
Formatting a document's background; setting a colored background; adding a watermark; placing page borders
Create and modify headers and footers
Inserting and formatting page numbers; inserting the current date and time; inserting a built-in header or footer; adding content to a header or footer (custom dialog box, manual entry); deleting a header or footer; changing margins; applying a different first page attribute

Preparation resources
Change page margins
Apply themes to Word documents
Add or remove headers, footers, and page numbers

Including illustrations and graphics in a document
Insert and format pictures in a document
Adding captions; applying artistic effects and picture styles; compressing pictures; modifying a shape; adjusting position and size; inserting screenshots
Insert and format shapes, WordArt, and SmartArt
Adding text to a shape; modifying text on a shape; adding captions; setting shape styles (border, text); adjusting position and size
Insert and format Clip Art
Organizing ClipArt, captions, artistic effects, compressing pictures, corrections, modifying the shape, reset, picture styles, arranging options, size
Apply and manipulate text boxes
Formatting, saving selection to text box gallery, text box styles, text direction, shadow effects, 3-D effects, arranging options

Preparation resources

Move a WordArt, shape, or text box
Change the size of a picture, shape, text box, or WordArt

Proofreading documents
Validate content by using spelling and grammar checking options
Grammar and style options
Configure AutoCorrect settings
Adding, removing, exceptions, AutoCorrect dialog
Insert and modify comments in a document
Inserting a comment; editing a comment; deleting a comment; viewing a comment (viewing comments from another user, viewing comments inline, viewing comments as balloons)

Preparation resources
Check spelling and grammar
AutoCorrect spelling, and insert text and symbols
Insert or delete a comment

Applying references and hyperlinks
Apply a hyperlink
Hyperlink using text; hyperlink using graphic, headings, and bookmarks; creating new document; email address
Create endnotes and footnotes in a document
Managing footnote and endnote location; configuring footnote and endnote format, presentation, and numbering
Create a table of contents in a document
Default formats, showing levels, alignment, tab leader, formats, options; modifying styles; updating table

Preparation resources
Insert or create footnotes and endnotes
Create a table of contents or update a table of contents

Performing mail merge operations
Setup mail merge
Performing a mail merge using the Mail Merge Wizard; performing a mail merge manually; auto checking for errors
Execute mail merge
Print, preview

Preparation resources
Use mail merge to send personalized e-mail messages to your e-mail address list
Make labels for a mass mailing
Use mail merge to create and print letters and other documents


QUESTION 1
You type a document and you want to insert header from third page. Which of the following technique will you use to accomplish the task?

A. Go to the third page and insert header.
B. Use a Quick Style.
C. Use page break.
D. Use section break.

Answer: D


QUESTION 2
You have finished typing a document of about 500 pages and now you are reviewing it. You are currently on the fourth page. What will you do to quickly go to the last page?

A. Use the Go To tool.
B. Use the Find tool.
C. Use the Replace tool.
D. Scroll the document and go to the last page.

Answer: A


QUESTION 3
You work in an office and you are assigned with the task of writing a document. In the document, there are some words that need reference. What will you do to give the reference for the words on the same page?

A. Create footnote.
B. Type the reference at the end of the page.
C. Create header.
D. Create footer.

Answer: A


QUESTION 4
You work in an office and you are assigned with the task of preparing a document. You have inserted some images in the document. What will you do to insert a list of all the captions of the images along with the page numbers they appear on?

A. Insert an Index.
B. Insert Table of Contents.
C. Insert Table of Authorities.
D. Insert Table of Figures

Answer: D