Exam Guide Details (Click below to expand) The BTA Certified Blockchain Developer Hyperledger (CBDH) exam is an elite
way to demonstrate your knowledge and skills in this emerging space. This exam
study guide covers exam objectives, including to write, test, and deploy secure
chain code. It will include topics on how to plan and prepare applications for
the Hyperledger Blockchain. The guide provides exam objectives on how to use
Hyperledger Composer.
Exam guide includes: 100+ practice questions
Key term glossary
This guide is geared to prepare you for the Certified Blockchain Developer
Hyperledger (CBDH) exam. The exam is delivered globally at Pearson VUE
locations. The CBDE exam is a 70 question multiple-choice exam that lasts 1.5
hours and is a performance-based evaluation of your Hyperledger Fabric and
Composer skills and knowledge.
Question: 1 Level DB is the default database for Hyperledger Fabric and is particularly
appropriate when ledger states comprise what type of data?
A. Complex key-value pairs
B. Rich Queries
C. JSON data pairs
D. Simple key-value pairs
Answer: D
Explanation:
Simple key-value pairs - LevelDB is the default and is particularly appropriate
when ledger states are
simple key-value pairs. A LevelDB database is closely co-located with a network
node – it is
embedded within the same operating system process. CouchDB is a particularly
appropriate choice
when ledger states are structured as JSON documents because CouchDB supports the
rich queries
and update of richer data types often found in business transactions.
Implementation-wise, CouchDB
runs in a separate operating system process, but there is still a 1:1 relation
between a network node
and a CouchDB instance. All of this is invisible to chaincode.
Question: 2 When creating a network according to an organization's structure and also
bootstrap a channel what
are the following artifacts we would need to generate?
A. Genesis Block, License File and Anchor Peer Configs for each organization.
B. Genesis Block, ledger Configuration and Anchor Peer Configs for each
organization.
C. Genesis Block, Channel Configuration and Anchor Peer Configs for each
organization.
D. Genesis Block, Channel Configuration and Anchor MSP Configs for each
organization.
Answer: C
Explanation:
To create a network according to an organization's structure, and to bootstrap a
channel, we will
need to generate the following artifacts: A genesis block, containing
organization-specific certificates
that serve to initialize the Fabric blockchain. Channel configuration
information. Anchor peer
configurations for each organization. An anchor peer serves as a fulcrum within
an organization, for
cross-organization ledger syncing using the Fabric gossip protocol.
Question: 3 Which Hyperledger tool would you select to invoke, deploy or query blocks,
transactions and
associated data, network information (name, status, list of nodes), chain codes
and transaction
families, as well as other relevant information stored in the ledger?
A. Hyperledger Quilt
B. Hyperledger Cello
C. Hyperledger Caliper
D. Hyperledger Explorer
Answer: D
Explanation:
Hyperledger explorer: Hyperledger explorer, which was originally contributed by
IBM, Intel, and
DTCC, can view, invoke, deploy or query blocks, transactions and associated
data, network
information (name, status, list of nodes), chain codes and transaction families,
as well as other
relevant information stored in the ledger.
Question: 4 Blockchain services consists of three major components.
What are they? (Select three.)
A. Consensus Manager
B. Distributed Ledger
C. Peer to Peer Protocol
D. Reputation Manager
E. Membership Services
QUESTION: 1
A business analyst needs to visualize the sales of products by product category, product sub-category,
and product name. The analyst would like to see the relative sales by product hierarchy without
using a drill-down dimension.
Which chart type should the analyst use?
A. Grid chart
B. Block chart
C. Combo chart
D. Radar chart
Answer: A QUESTION: 2
Which three options can be used to change the background on a bar chart? (Select three )
A. Color
B. Image
C. Multicolored
D. Dynamic Image
E. Persistent Colors
Answer: A,B,C QUESTION: 3
A business analyst needs to analyze average sales by product number and country by year. Which
measure(s) should the business analyst use?
A. Year
B. Average Sales
C. Average Sales and Year
D. Product Number and Average Sales
1Z0-133 Oracle WebLogic Server 12c: Administration I
Exam Title: Oracle WebLogic Server 12c: Administration I
Exam Number: 1Z0-133
Exam Price: Rs.16,166.00 More on exam pricing
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 120 minutes
Number of Questions: 77
Passing Score: 64%
Validated Against:
This exam is validated against 12.1.2.
Take Recommended Training Courses
Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):
Oracle WebLogic Server 12c: Administration I
Additional Preparation and Information
A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs
and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.
Overview of WebLogic Server
Explain the WebLogic Server terms: domain, server, machine and cluster
Explain the difference between the administration server and the managed
servers.
Describe the administrative tools: Administration Console, WLST, WLDF,
Monitoring Dashboard
Creating Domains
Describe a domain's file system
Create a domain by using the Configuration Wizard
Configure machines, servers, and clusters by using the Configuration Wizard
Copy a domain to another computer with the pack and unpack utilities
Using the Administration Console
Access the WebLogic Server Administration Console
Identify the components of the Administration Console
Update Administration Console preferences
Use the Administration Console change center
Create and configure servers by using the Administration Console
Monitoring a Domain
Configure WebLogic Server logs
Interpret a server log file entry
Create and apply a log filter
Enable WebLogic Server debugging output
Monitor WebLogic Server health and performance
Monitor JDBC data sources
Access diagnostic charts in the Monitoring Dashboard
Deploying Applications
Deploy an application
Start a deployed application
Stop a deployed application
Undeploy an application
Redeploy an application
Use the test links for an application supplied by the Administration Console
Monitor a deployed application
Use the Monitoring Dashboard's built-in application view
Load test an application with The Grinder console given a script
Creating and Configuring Clusters
Describe basic and multi-tier cluster architectures
Create a cluster by using the Configuration Wizard
Create and configure a cluster by using the Administration Console
Create and configure a dynamic cluster
Create and configure a server template
Describe how a dynamic cluster calculates listen ports and machines for
generated servers
Cluster Communication, Planning and Troubleshooting
Explain the difference between unicast and multicast cluster communication
Configure replication channels by using the Administration Console
Describe planning for a cluster
Monitor a cluster
WebLogic Server Security
List some of the WebLogic Server security providers and what they do
Describe basic LDAP architecture
Configure an external LDAP authentication provider for WebLogic Server
Describe how multiple authentication providers can be used with WebLogic Server
Installing and Patching WebLogic Server
Determine supported configurations for WebLogic Server
Install WebLogic Server in graphical mode
Install WebLogic Server silently
Describe the installation directory structure
Apply a patch to WebLogic Server by using OPatch
Starting Servers
Start and stop servers with standard scripts
Identify and resolve problems with server startup
Customize start and stop scripts, including the CLASSPATH
Restart a failed server on a different machine
Configuring JDBC
Describe WebLogic Server's JDBC architecture
Describe WebLogic Server's JNDI architecture
Compare the different types of data sources
Compare the different data source transaction options
Create and configure a generic data source
Tune a data source's connection pool
Create and configure a GridLink data source
Node Manager
Describe the architecture and capabilities of the Node Manager
Create a Node Manager with the Configuration Wizard
Configure properties for the Java Node Manager
Describe the Java Node Manager directory structure
Enroll a Node Manager with a domain
Start and stop a Node Manager
Start and stop managed servers by using the Administration Console
Network Channels and Virtual Hosts
Configure a WebLogic Server network channel
Monitor a network channel
Configure WebLogic Server to use an administration port
Configure a virtual host for WebLogic Server
Cluster Proxies and Sessions
Install Oracle HTTP Server with the Web Tier installer
Configure Oracle HTTP Server as a WebLogic Server cluster proxy
List the options for HTTP session failover
Configure in-memory session replication
Configure replication groups
Transactions
Explain WebLogic Server's role in managing transactions
Configure WebLogic Server transactions (JTA)
Configure the WebLogic Server default store used for transaction logs
Configure a database persistent store for WebLogic Server transaction logs
Monitor WebLogic Server transactions
Backing Up a Doman and Upgrading WebLogic Server
Back up a WebLogic Server domain
Restore a WebLogic Server domain
Define Managed Service Independence mode
Describe the process to upgrade WebLogic Server 11g to 12c
Run the WebLogic Server Reconfiguration Wizard as part of the upgrade process
QUESTION: 1
You are using the Configuration Wizard to create a new domain that will consist of a cluster of a of
three managed servers along with an instance of WebLogic server acting as HIPT proxy to distribute
traffic to the cluster.
Which three steps should you perform with the Configuration Wizard?
A. Create one Cluster.
B. Install Oracle HTTP Server.
C. Create one Coherence server.
D. Create four managed servers.
E. Assign three servers to a cluster.
F. Specify a proxy port tor the administration server.
Answer: A,D,E
QUESTION: 2
You decide to use a database to store WebLogic Server transaction logs for a managed server.
Which two steps are required to configure this?
A. Under the managed server's Services configuration select “JDBC” as the type for the transaction
log store.
B. Under the managed server's Services configuration, select "Disable the Default Store
C. Create a non XA data source in the domain for the database transaction log.
D. Create an XA data source in the domain for the database transaction log.
Answer: A,C
QUESTION: 3
Which session persistence type is invalid?
A. Async_replicated
B. async_jdbc
C. replicated
D. async_memory
E. cookie
F. file
G. replicated_if_clustered
Answer: D
QUESTION: 4
An administrate in your organization says you do not need to back up the domain files on a machine
which only managed servers run.
Select the best explanation for this statement.
A. This Is true because the domain files can be re-created with the pack and unpack utilities.
B. This is true (with an exception) because the domain files can be re-created with the pack and
unpack utilities. The exception is if your security realm uses the embedded ldap system. Which is not
included in the JAR file created by the pack utility.
C. This is true (with an exception) because the domain files can be re-created with the pack and
unpack utilities. The exception is for applications that are deployed to the managed server. Those
files are not included in the JAR file created by the pack utility. If you back those up manually, then
pack and unpack can be used.
D. This is not true. You need to back up the domain files on a machine on which only managed
servers run by using operating system commands (such as tar or zip).
Answer: A
QUESTION: 5
Which statement is true about stopping Node Manager?
A. If you stop Node Manager, the managed servers it started will also stop.
B. You may kill the Node Manager process by using operating system commands.
C. Using the stopNodeManager.sh script so Node Manager stops gradually.
D. Using the administration console, select the appropriate machine and click stop.
E. The administration server goes into ADMIN mode if it can no longer Communicate with Node
Manager.
F. The managed servers that Nod Manager started go into ADMIN mode if they can no longer
communicate with Node Manager.
QUESTION: 1
What is the correct statement about Huawei Desktop Cloud?
A. Desktop cloud products can migrate PC desktops for all application scenarios.
B. Peripherals that can run on a PC can be used directly on the cloud desktop.
C. All software running on a PC can be used directly on the cloud desktop.
D. Huawei Ready is used to resolve compatibility issues.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 2
A company is headquartered in Beijing. Due to business expansion, it is necessary to deploy research
institutes in Shenzhen, Guangzhou and Shanghai. Practicing
From a business perspective, which of the following services is appropriate when deploying a
desktop cloud?
A. Mobile office
B. Branches
C. Multiple domains
D.SBC
Answer: B
QUESTION: 3
What are the internal components of Fusion Access?
A.HDC
B.LIC
C.ITA
D.TCM
Answer: B, C,
QUESTION: 4
The following are not features of the FlusinCube Desktop Cloud Appliance.
A. Pre-installation of the whole machine
B. Automated application deployment
C. High-performance graphics processing
D. Internal OceanStor high performance storage
Answer: D
QUESTION: 5
What are the characteristics of virtualized antivirus? Multiple choice questions
A. User vm must install anti-virus agent
B. Support filexible multi-dimensional combinations such as virus scanning range, scanning timing,
and processing methods after virus detection
Set an antivirus policy.
C. In addition to this trend, the integration of mainstream anti-virus vendors.
D. Avoid the scanning storm and business performance brought by the anti-virus mode of the
traditional deployment agent in the case of full anti-virus loss.
Course ID 01120341
Course format, Typical duration WBT - Web Based, Self Paced, 5 hours 30 minutes
Skill level Foundational
Delivery languages English
Lab required No
Related certifications HPE Sales Certified - Aruba Products and Solutions [2019]
In preparation for these exams
Selected items from this course are included in these exams:
HPE2-W02: Selling Aruba Products and Solutions
Course description This course illustrates the opportunity with Aruba and teaches how to
describe, position, and recommend Aruba wireless and switching solutions as well
as security, location services, and network management. The primary focus is to
enable channel partners to expand their sales opportunities with Aruba and build
their sales pipeline.
The course content includes: • Understanding the opportunity with Aruba, a Hewlett Packard Enterprise
Company
• Positioning for:
o Aruba wireless and Aruba switching infrastructure solutions
o Aruba network management, location services, and security solutions
o Aruba software-defined branch solutions and solutions for small-to-medium
sized businesses
o Key verticals for selling Aruba solutions
Ideal candidate for this course
Channel partners who recommend and sell Aruba networking solutions
Topics Understand the Opportunity with Aruba
Aruba Wireless Solutions
Aruba Switching Solutions
Aruba Network Management
Aruba Location Services
Aruba Security Solutions
Aruba Branch Solutions
Aruba Solutions for Small to Mid-sized Customers
Aruba Vertical Solutions
Course Summary
Objectives
After you successfully complete this course, expect to be able to:
• Describe the technology trends that are impacting IT purchasing decisions and
networks today
• Explain the business value and differentiating features of Aruba networking
products and solutions
• Identify and qualify Aruba networking opportunities in key vertical markets
Please note: For new and non-native English learners allow an additional 1-2
hours for interactivity and learning checks. For the best learning experience,
it is recommended that you use Google Chrome to take this course. To study for
the exam it is recommended that you download and review the course study
materials at the link provided in the course “Resources” section. The link will
take you to HPE Press. You will be prompted to download an e-reader of your
choice so you can download and view the content. The e-reader and course study
materials are free of charge. QUESTION: 1
A customer needs a network infrastructure upgrade.
Which characteristic should you use as the primary deciding factor between proposing HPE
OfficeConnect or Aruba solutions?
A. whether the customer requires 802.11ac
B. the company vertical
C. the company size and number of users
D. whether the customer requires wired or wireless access
Answer: C
QUESTION: 2
A customer needs an AP that provides Wave 2 802.11ac for an outdoor environment.
Which AP Series meets the need?
A. AP 340
B. AP 303H
C. AP 360
D. AP 330
Answer: D
Reference:
https://www.arubanetworks.com/me/products/networking/access-points/330-series/
QUESTION: 3
A customer is concerned about wireless security, and specifically that employees could introduce
malware into the network by visiting disreputable websites.
Which security feature in Aruba Mobility Controllers (MCs) should you emphasize to address this
specific concern?
A. User and Entity Behavior Analytics (UEBA)
B. Web Content Classification (WCC)
C. RF Protect
D. Application Visibility and Control
Answer: B
Reference:
https://blogs.arubanetworks.com/solutions/web-content-classification-a-powerful-new-policytoolfor-
the-pef-firewall/
QUESTION: 4
What is one key advantage of Aruba wireless solutions as compared to Cisco Meraki solutions?
A. Aruba offers cloud subscription-based licensing for all APs while Cisco Meraki requires a significant
CAPEX expenditure.
B. Aruba offers beamforming in APs to improve wireless coverage while Cisco Meraki Aps does not
support any such feature.
C. Aruba offers integration with an extensive ecosystem while Cisco Meraki offers little third-party
integration.
D. Aruba offers one simple choice for management while Cisco Meraki has a confusing array of
management options.
Answer: D
Reference:
https://www.itcentralstation.com/products/comparisons/aruba-wireless_vs_cisco-merakiwirelesslan
QUESTION: 5
A mid-sized customer is having trouble deciding between in a controllerless Aruba solution and a
controllerbased one. What can you explain to the customer about how Aruba protects the company’s
investment?
A. The same Aruba APs can be deployed in controllerless Instant mode and then later changed to
controlled mode.
B. Aruba offers a buy-back program for controllerless Instant APs, making it cost effective to later
deploy controlled APs.
C. There is no difference in features and capabilities between a controllerless and controller-based
Aruba solution.
D. Aruba uses a cloud subscription-based licensing model for controllerless APs, and these licenses
can be upgraded to controller licenses.
Course ID 01120340
Course format, Typical duration WBT - Web Based, Self Paced, 4 hours
Skill level Entry
Delivery languages English
Lab required No
Related certifications HPE Sales Certified - Introduction to Selling Products,
Solutions and Services [2019]
In preparation for these exams Selected items from this course are included in
these exams:
HPE2-E71: Introduction to Selling HPE Products, Solutions and Services
Course description This interactive course teaches HPE channel partners to describe, position,
and recommend entry-level HPE products and solutions to their customers.
Additionally, the course introduces foundational HPE networking, server,
storage, and hyperconvergence concepts as well as HPE Pointnext and HPE
Financial Services.
The course content includes: • The technology trends that are driving small to medium-sized customers'
buying decisions
• Networking fundamentals and HPE Networking/Aruba SMB Portfolio
• Server fundamentals and HPE Server SMB Portfolio including Gen10 and HPE
server management
• Storage fundamentals and HPE Storage SMB portfolio including HPE Nimble and
Infosight
• Hyperconvergence fundamentals and HPE SimpliVity
• HPE Pointnext support services for small to medium-sized businesses
• HPE Financial Services for small to medium-sized businesses including new
flexible IT consumption models
Ideal candidate for this course HPE channel partners and sales professionals who sell entry-level HPE
products and solutions
Technology trends for small to medium-sized businesses
HPE Networking portfolio (includes networking primer)
HPE Server portfolio (includes server primer)
HPE Storage portfolio (includes storage primer)
HPE Simplivity (includes hyperconvergence primer)
HPE Pointnext services, HPE Financial Services
Objectives
After successful completion of this course, you will be able to:
• Describe the technology trends that drive IT buying decisions today
• Identify and qualify sales opportunities for HPE entry-level networking,
server, storage, and hyperconverged solutions
• Discuss the HPE Pointnext services offerings that complement channel partner
IT services offerings
• Recommend new IT consumption and financing models for SMB customers and the
benefits of HPE Financial Services
Please note: This course includes 45 minutes of additional, optional primer
content to help those who are new to selling HPE products and solutions. For new
and non-native English learners allow an additional 1-2 hours for interactivity
and learning checks. For the best learning experience, it is recommended that
you use Google Chrome to take this course. To study for the exam it is
recommended that you download and review the course study materials at the link
provided in the course “Resources” section. The link will take you to HPE Press.
You will be prompted to download an e-reader of your choice so you can download
and view the content. The e-reader and course study materials are free of
charge.
QUESTION: 1
Which of the following statements are true regarding the SIP session helper and the SIP application
layer gateway (ALG)? (Choose three.)
A. SIP session helper runs in the kernel; SIP ALG runs as a user space process.
B. SIP ALG supports SIP HA failover; SIP helper does not.
C. SIP ALG supports SIP over IPv6; SIP helper does not.
D. SIP ALG can create expected sessions for media traffic; SIP helper does not.
E. SIP helper supports SIP over TCP and UDP; SIP ALG supports only SIP over UDP.
Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION: 2
Which of the following statements is true regarding a FortiGate configured as an explicit web proxy?
A. FortiGate limits the number of simultaneous sessions per explicit web proxy user. This limit
CANNOT be modified by the administrator.
B. FortiGate limits the total number of simultaneous explicit web proxy users.
C. FortiGate limits the number of simultaneous sessions per explicit web proxy user. The limit CAN be
modified by the administrator.
D. FortiGate limits the number of workstations that authenticate using the same web proxy user
credentials. This limit CANNOT be modified by the administrator.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 3
A corporate network allows Internet Access to FSSO users only. The FSSO user student does not have
Internet access after successfully logged into the Windows AD network. The output of the ‘diagnose
debug authd fsso list’ command does not show student as an active FSSO user. Other FSSO users can
access the Internet without problems. What should the administrator check? (Choose two.)
A. The user student must not be listed in the CA’s ignore user list.
B. The user student must belong to one or more of the monitored user groups.
C. The student workstation’s IP subnet must be listed in the CA’s trusted list.
D. At least one of the student’s user groups must be allowed by a FortiGate firewall policy.
Answer: B,D
QUESTION: 4
An administrator has decreased all the TCP session timers to optimize the FortiGate memory usage.
However, after the changes, one network application started to have problems. During the
troubleshooting, the administrator noticed that the FortiGate deletes the sessions after the clients
send the SYN packets, and before the arrival of the SYN/ACKs. When the SYN/ACK packets arrive to
the FortiGate, the unit has already deleted the respective sessions. Which TCP session timer must be
increased to fix this problem?
A. TCP half open.
B. TCP half close.
C. TCP time wait.
D. TCP session time to live.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 5
An administrator is running the following sniffer in a FortiGate:
diagnose sniffer packet any “host 10.0.2.10” 2
What information is included in the output of the sniffer? (Choose two.)
A. Ethernet headers.
B. IP payload.
C. IP headers.
D. Port names.
QUESTION: 1
When browsing to an internal web server using a web-mode SSL VPN bookmark, which IP address is
used as the source of the HTTP request?
A. remote user’s public IP address
B. The public IP address of the FortiGate device.
C. The remote user’s virtual IP address.
D. The internal IP address of the FotiGate device.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 2
A team manager has decided that while some members of the team need access to particular
website, the majority of the team does not. Which configuration option is the most effective option
to support this request?
A. Implement a web filter category override for the specified website.
B. Implement web filter authentication for the specified website
C. Implement web filter quotas for the specified website.
D. Implement DNS filter for the specified website.
Answer: A QUESTION: 3
Which of the following statements are best practices for troubleshooting FSSO? (Choose two.)
A. Include the group of guest users in a policy.
B. Extend timeout timers.
C. Guarantee at least 34 Kbps bandwidth between FortiGate and domain controllers.
D. Ensure all firewalls allow the FSSO required ports.
Answer: A,D
QUESTION: 4
Which statements about antivirus scanning mode are true? (Choose two.)
A. In proxy-based inspection mode antivirus buffers the whole file for scarring before sending it to
the client.
B. In flow-based inspection mode, you can use the CLI to configure antivirus profiles to use protocol
option profiles.
C. In proxy-based inspection mode, if a virus is detected, a replacement message may not be
displayed immediately.
D. In quick scan mode, you can configure antivirus profiles to use any of the available signature data
bases.
Answer: B,D
QUESTION: 5
In a high availability (HA) cluster operating in active-active mode, which of the following correctly
describes the path taken by the SYN packet of an HTTP session that is offloaded to a secondary
FortiGate?
A. Client > primary FortiGate> secondary FortiGate> primary FortiGate> web server.
B. Client > secondary FortiGate> web server.
C. Client >secondary FortiGate> primary FortiGate> web server.
D. Client> primary FortiGate> secondary FortiGate> web server.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 6
An administrator is configuring an IPsec between site A and site B. The Remotes Gateway setting in
both sites has been configured as Static IP Address. For site A, the local quick mode selector is
192.16.1.0/24 and the remote quick mode selector is 192.16.2.0/24. How must the administrator
configure the local quick mode selector for site B?
A. 192.168.3.0.24
B. 192.168.2.0.24
C. 192.168.1.0.24
D. 192.168.0.0.8
