Oracle Database Administration I | 1Z0-082 An Oracle Database Administration 2019 Certified Professional has proven
theoretical understanding of and the practical skills required to configure and
manage Oracle Databases up to and including Oracle 19c. Passing this 1st exam in
the 2 exam path proves your skills in SQL programming skills, database and
network administration.
Audience: Database Administrator
Exam Details
Exam Title: Oracle Database Administration I
Exam Number: 1Z0-082
Exam Price: $50
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 150 Minutes
Number of Questions: 90
Passing Score: 60%
Validated Against: Oracle Database Administration 2019 Certified Professional
Take Recommended Training Courses Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):
Oracle Database: Administration Workshop
Oracle Database: Introduction to SQL
Oracle Database Administration Learning Subscription
Unlimited Product Learning Subscription
Additional Preparation and Information A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs
and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.
Oracle Database 2019 Certification Overview and Study Guide
Understanding Oracle Database Architecture - Oracle Database: Administration
Workshop Understanding Oracle Database Instance Configurations
Understanding Oracle Database Memory and Process Structures
Understanding Logical and Physical Database Structures
Understanding Oracle Database Server Architecture
Managing Users, Roles and Privileges - Oracle Database: Administration
Workshop Assigning Quotas to Users
Applying the Principal of Least Privilege
Creating and Assigning Profiles
Administering User Authentication Methods
Managing Oracle Database Users, Privileges, and Roles
Moving Data - Oracle Database: Administration Workshop Using External Tables
Using Oracle Data Pump
Using SQL*Loader
Configuring Oracle Net Services - Oracle Database: Administration Workshop Using Oracle Net Services Administration Tools
Configuring Communication Between Database Instances
Configuring the Oracle Net Listener
Connecting to an Oracle Database Instance
Comparing Dedicated and Shared Server Configurations
Administering Naming Methods
Managing Undo - Oracle Database: Administration Workshop
Understanding Transactions and Undo Data
Storing Undo Information
Configuring Undo Rentention
Comparing Undo Data and Redo Data
Understanding Temporary Undo
Using Conversion Functions and Conditional Expressions - Oracle Database:
Introduction to SQL Applying the NVL, NULLIF, and COALESCE functions to data
Understanding implicit and explicit data type conversion
Using the TO_CHAR, TO_NUMBER, and TO_DATE conversion functions
Nesting multiple functions
Using SET Operators - Oracle Database: Introduction to SQL Matching the SELECT statements
Using the ORDER BY clause in set operations
Using The INTERSECT operator
Using The MINUS operator
Using The UNION and UNION ALL operators
Managing Views - Oracle Database: Introduction to SQL
Retrieving Data using the SQL SELECT Statement - Oracle Database:
Introduction to SQL Using Column aliases
Using The DESCRIBE command
Using The SQL SELECT statement
Using concatenation operator, literal character strings, alternative quote
operator, and the DISTINCT keyword
Using Arithmetic expressions and NULL values in the SELECT statement
Reporting Aggregated Data Using Group Functions - Oracle Database:
Introduction to SQL
Restricting Group Results
Creating Groups of Data
Using Group Functions
Managing Tables using DML statements - Oracle Database: Introduction to SQL Managing Database Transactions
Using Data Manipulation Language
Controlling transactions
Managing Schema Objects - Oracle Database: Introduction to SQL Creating and using temporary tables
Managing constraints
Managing Database Instances - Oracle Database: Administration Workshop
Starting Up Oracle Database Instances
Using Data Dictionary Views
Shutting Down Oracle Database Instances
Using Dynamic Performance Views
Using the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR)
Using the Alert Log and Trace Files
Managing Initialization Parameter Files
Managing Storage - Oracle Database: Administration Workshop Managing Resumable Space Allocation
Shrinking Segments
Deferring Segment Creation
Using Space-Saving Features
Deploying Oracle Database Space Management Features
Managing Different Types of Segments
Using Table and Row Compression
Understanding Block Space Management
Accessing an Oracle Database with Oracle supplied Tools - Oracle Database:
Administration Workshop
Using the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA)
Using Oracle Enterprise Manager Cloud Control
Using racle enterprise Manager Database Express
Using SQL Developer
Using SQL Plus
Managing Tablespaces and Datafiles - Oracle Database: Administration Workshop
Viewing Tablespace Information
Creating, Altering and Dropping Tablespaces
Managing Table Data Storage
Implementing Oracle Managed Files
Moving and Renaming Online Data Files
Restricting and Sorting Data - Oracle Database: Introduction to SQL
Applying Rules of precedence for operators in an expression
Limiting Rows Returned in a SQL Statement
Using Substitution Variables
Using the DEFINE and VERIFY commands
Displaying Data from Multiple Tables Using Joins - Oracle Database: Introduction
to SQL
Using Self-joins
Using Various Types of Joins
Using Non equijoins
Using OUTER joins
Understanding Data Definition Language - Oracle Database: Introduction to SQL
Using Data Definition Language
Managing Data in Different Time Zones - Oracle Database: Introduction to SQL Working with CURRENT_DATE, CURRENT_TIMESTAMP,and LOCALTIMESTAMP
Working with INTERVAL data types
Using Single-Row Functions to Customize Output - Oracle Database:
Introduction to SQL Manipulating strings with character functions in SQL SELECT and WHERE
clauses
Performing arithmetic with date data
Manipulating numbers with the ROUND, TRUNC and MOD functions
Manipulating dates with the date function
Using Subqueries to Solve Queries - Oracle Database: Introduction to SQL Using Single Row Subqueries
Using Multiple Row Subqueries
QUESTION 2
Which statement is true about the INTERSECT operator used in compound queries?
A. Multiple INTERSECT operators are not possible in the same SQL statement
B. It processes NULLs in the selected columns
C. INTERSECT is of lower precedence than UNION or UNION ALL
D. It ignores NULLs
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which three statements are true about advanced connection options supported by Oracle Net for connection
to Oracle Database instances? (Choose three.)
A. Connect Time Failover requires the use of Transparent Application Failover (TAF)
B. Source Routing requires the use of a name server
C. Source Routing enables the use of Connection Manager (CMAN) which enables network traffic to be
routed through a firewall
D. Load Balancing can balance the number of connections to dispatchers when using a Shared Server
configuration
E. Load Balancing requires the use of a name server
F. Connect Time Failover requires the connect string to have two or more listener addresses configured
Answer: B,CF
QUESTION 4
Which two statements are true about date/time functions in a session where NLS_DATE_FORMAT is set to
DD-MON-YYYY HH24:MI:SS? (Choose two.)
A. CURRENT_TIMESTAMP returns the same date and time as SYSDATE with additional details of fractional
seconds
B. SYSDATE can be queried only from the DUAL table
C. CURRENT_DATE returns the current date and time as per the session time zone
D. SYSDATE can be used in expressions only if the default date format is DD-MON-RR
E. SYSDATE and CURRENT_DATE return the current date and time set for the operating system of the
database server
F. CURRENT_TIMESTAMP returns the same date as CURRENT_DATE
Answer: B,C
QUESTION 5
A database is configured to use automatic undo management with temporary undo enabled.
An UPDATE is executed on a temporary table.
Where is the UNDO stored?
A. in the undo tablespace
B. in the SYSAUX tablespace
C. in the SGA
D. in the PGA
E. in the temporary tablespace
Answer: A
QUESTION 6
You have been tasked to create a table for a banking application.
One of the columns must meet three requirements:
1. Be stored in a format supporting date arithmetic without using conversion functions
2. Store a loan period of up to 10 years
3. Be used for calculating interest for the number of days the loan remains unpaid
Which data type should you use?
A. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH
B. INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND
C. TIMESTAMP WITH LOCAL TIMEZONE
D. TIMESTAMP
E. TIMESTAMP WITH TIMEZONE
Certification Overview This certifies a student can install, implement, manage and administer an
Isilon scale-out storage solution in a live datacenter environment.
Certification Requirements To complete the requirements for this certification you must:
1. Achieve one of the following pre-requisite certifications*
• Associate - Information Storage and Management Version 2.0
• Associate - Information Storage and Management Version 3.0
• Associate - Information Storage and Management Version 4.0
• Specialist – Implementation Engineer, Isilon Solutions Version 2.0
• Specialist – Systems Administrator, Isilon Solutions Version 2.0
Overview This exam is a qualifying exam for the Specialist - Implementation Engineer,
Isilon Solutions (DCS-IE) track.
This exam focuses on the implementation of an Isilon scale-out storage solution.
The course prepares students to perform Isilon cluster installation and
implementation. Students will be familiar with Isilon software modules and
configurations including: SmartConnect , SMB, NFS, multi-protocol, data
protection/replication in single and multi-cluster implementations, archive
deployment, snapshots and replication, deduplication, RBAC, SNMP integration,
analytics, support and monitoring.
Dell Technologies provides free practice tests to assess your knowledge in
preparation for the exam. Practice tests allow you to become familiar with the
topics and question types you will find on the proctored exam. Your results on a
practice test offer one indication of how prepared you are for the proctored
exam and can highlight topics on which you need to study and train further. A
passing score on the practice test does not guarantee a passing score on the
certification exam.
Products likely to be referred to on this exam include but are not limited
to: • OneFS v8.2
• InsightIQ 3.0
• Isilon Generation 5 Nodes
• Isilon Generation 6 Nodes
Exam Topics Topics likely to be covered on this exam include:
Isilon Fundamentals and Authentication (16%) • Describe the Isilon storage concepts such as Scale out versus Scale up,
architecture, and OneFS details
• Identify and describe Isilon hardware components and intended use cases
including both Gen 5 and Gen 6 hardware types
• Identify and describe how an administrator accesses a cluster using WebUI, SSH,
and Multi-factor SSH
• Describe cluster dependencies on NTP, LDAP, Active Directory, and other
dependent configurations
Isilon Networking (17%) • Configure Access zones and base directories with the proper folder
structure layout
• Describe the basic internal and external network configurations,
multi-tenancy, groupnets, subnets, pools and rules
• Identify and explain the various network configurations in Gen 5 and Gen 6
including link aggregation, failover LACP, FEC, and Round Robin
• Describe how to integrate SmartConnect, SmartConnect zones, DNS, SSIP, IP
address pools, and load balancing
• Explain the use of VLAN, SBR, and NANON
Authentication, Identity Management, Authorization (10%) • Differentiate the use of RBAC and ZRBAC
• Explain the use of user identifiers and the proper use of ID mapping
• Identify and describe POSIX and ACLs permission rubrics
Client Protocols, Hadoop, and Auditing (13%) • Describe OneFS caching levels and use cases
• Configure SMB shares with SMB3 Continuous Availability (CA) and Server-Side
Copy with protocol auditing and file filtering
• Configure NFS exports with NFSv4 Continuous Availability (CA)
• Identify and describe Hadoop and Swift configurations and features
Data Protection and Layout (14%) • Identify FEC data protection levels, file striping, and Reed-Solomon
protection definitions
• Differentiate between requested, suggested, and actual protection levels and
verify with isi get commands
• Differentiate concurrent and streaming data layout models, use cases, and
performance impacts
• Explain storage pools, policies, neighborhoods, global namespace, spillover,
and VHS
OneFS Modules and Data Services (13%) • Differentiate between SmartPools, storage pools, SSD usage, and file pool
policies
• Describe how SmartQuotas are configured and identify the characteristics of
SmartDedupe capabilities
• Identify SnapshotIQ features, CoW and RoW mechanics, and scheduling
• Identify and describe how to prepare the cluster for SyncIQ disaster recovery
OneFS Job Engine (10%) • Identify and describe the OneFS Job Engine architecture, components, and
workers and circumstantial modes
• Describe the various job types, exclusion sets, priorities, and impacts
• Describe how jobs are managed in real time and how the schedule is maintained
Upgrades and Monitoring (10%) • Describe how upgrades are applied to a cluster including rollback and
commit options
• Explain the importance of firmware updates, ARR, and the Upgrade Helper tool
• Describe the installation of InsightIQ monitoring and reporting, and the use
of isi statistics commands
The percentages after each topic above reflects the approximate distribution of
the total question set across the exam.
QUESTION 1 When reviewing the actual protection output of N+4/2, what does the number
“4” represent?
A. FEC stripe units per stripe
B. Hard drives used per stripe
C. Volume stripes per file system
D. FEC stripe units per file system
Answer: A
Explanation:
It's OneFS FEC protection nomenclature for our "hybrid" protection polices. More
generally, it's written as: N+M/b
where "N" is the number of data stripe units in a stripe, "M" is the number of
FEC stripe units in a stripe, and "b" is the number of stripe units in a stripe
which are allowed to reside on the same node.
QUESTION 2 What impact can obsolete drive firmware have on an Isilon cluster?
A. Reduces administrative overhead and increases performance.
B. Affects redundancy settings and FEC coding.
C. Affects cluster performance or hardware reliability.
D. Increases runtime and cluster performance.
Answer: C
QUESTION 3 What defines FEC link aggregation mode?
A. Switches to the next interface when the primary interface becomes
unavailable.
B. Balances outgoing traffic based on hashed protocol header information that
includes source and destination addresses, and VLAN tag.
C. Balances outgoing traffic based on hashed protocol header information that
includes source and destination addresses.
D. Balances outbound traffic across all active ports in the aggregated link.
Answer: B
QUESTION 4 In Isilon OneFS, what is a characteristic of CoW with snapshots?
A. Used for small changes, inodes, and directories.
B. Avoids the double write penalty.
C. Increases file fragmentation.
D. Used for more substantial changes such as deletes.
Answer: A
Explanation:
With copy on write, as the name suggests, a new write to HEAD results in the old
blocks being copied out to the snapshot version first.
Although this incurs a double write penalty, it results in less fragmentation of
the HEAD file, which is better for cache prefetch, etc.
Typically, CoW is most prevalent in OneFS and is primarily used for small
changes, inodes and directories.
QUESTION 5 Which OneFS networking option enables Isilon for DNS multitenant
functionality?
Secure new opportunities. Do you know how to assess the vulnerability of a network and help prevent
attacks before they happen? Do you know how to perform WLAN security audits and
implement compliance monitoring solutions? Do you have experience setting up
Wireless Intrusion Prevention Systems (WISPS)?
Today’s wireless network security professionals need to have a deep
understanding of the latest software, tools, trends and technologies available.
Security professionals are often counted on to advise on security policies (i.e.
password and acceptable use). Plus, these experts are responsible for
configuring an entire network’s Security Design and Architecture.
Measure your skills and knowledge with this professional-level certification and
get on track toward ultimately earning your Certified Wireless Network Expert (CWNE)
certification. Those that pass the CWSP exam earn credit towards a CWNE
certification.
What it takes to become a CWSP: The CWSP certification is a professional level wireless LAN certification
for the CWNP Program. To earn a CWSP certification, you must hold a current and
valid CWNA credential. You must take the CWSP exam at a Pearson Vue Testing
Center and pass with a 70% or higher. Instructors must pass with a 80% or
higher. However you choose to prepare for the CWSP exam, you should start with
the exam objectives, which cover the full list of skills tested on the exam. The
CWSP certification is valid for three (3) years. To recertify, you must have a
current CWNA credential and pass the current CWSP exam. By passing the CWSP
exam, your CWNA certificate will be renewed for another three years.
Main areas covered by CWSP WLAN Discovery Techniques
Intrusion and Attack Techniques
802.11 Protocol Analysis
Wireless Intrusion Prevention Systems (WIPS) Implementation
Layer 2 and 3 VPNs used over 802.11 networks
Enterprise/SMB/SOHO/Public-Network Security design models
Managed Endpoint Security Systems802.11 Authentication and Key
Exam Objectives CWSP-206 Exam Objectives 2019 (CWSP-206 Exam will replace
CWSP-205 in September of 2019)
Management Protocols
Enterprise/SMB/SOHO/Public-Network Security Solution Implementation
Building Robust Security Networks from the ground up
Fast BSS Transition (aka. Fast/Secure Roaming) Techniques
Thorough coverage of all 802.1X/EAP types used in WLANs
Wireless LAN Management Systems (WNMS)
Authentication Infrastructure Design Models
Using Secure Applications
802.11 Design Architectures
Implementing a Thorough Wireless Security Policy
Official Wi-Fi Security Self Study Kit (including a Study Guide, Practice Test
and Exam Voucher)
Wi-Fi Security eLearning
Live Network Certification Training Class QUESTION 1
You have a Windows laptop computer with an integrated, dual-band, Wi-Fi compliant adapter. Your laptop
computer has protocol analyzer software installed that is capable of capturing and decoding 802.11ac data.
What statement best describes the likely ability to capture 802.11ac frames for security testing purposes?
A. Integrated 802.11ac adapters are not typically compatible with protocol analyzers in Windows laptops. It is
often best to use a USB adapter or carefully select a laptop with an integrated adapter that will work.
B. Laptops cannot be used to capture 802.11ac frames because they do not support MU-MIMO.
C. Only Wireshark can be used to capture 802.11ac frames as no other protocol analyzer has implemented
the proper frame decodes.
D. All integrated 802.11ac adapters will work with most protocol analyzers for frame capture, including the
Radio Tap Header.
E. The only method available to capture 802.11ac frames is to perform a remote capture with a compatible
access point.
Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
In order to acquire credentials of a valid user on a public hotspot network, what attacks may be conducted?
Choose the single completely correct answer.
A. MAC denial of service and/or physical theft
B. Social engineering and/or eavesdropping
C. Authentication cracking and/or RF DoS
D. Code injection and/or XSS
E. RF DoS and/or physical theft
Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
What WLAN client device behavior is exploited by an attacker during a hijacking attack?
A. After the initial association and 4-way handshake, client stations and access points do not need to perform
another 4-way handshake, even if connectivity is lost.
B. Client drivers scan for and connect to access point in the 2.4 GHz band before scanning the 5 GHz band.
C. When the RF signal between a client and an access point is disrupted for more than a few seconds, the
client device will attempt to associate to an access point with better signal quality.
D. When the RF signal between a client and an access point is lost, the client will not seek to reassociate with
another access point until the 120 second hold down timer has expired.
E. As specified by the Wi-Fi Alliance, clients using Open System authentication must allow direct client-toclient
connections, even in an infrastructure BSS.
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
What software and hardware tools are used in the process performed to hijack a wireless station from the
authorized wireless network onto an unauthorized wireless network?
A. A low-gain patch antenna and terminal emulation software
B. MAC spoofing software and MAC DoS software
C. RF jamming device and a wireless radio card
D. A wireless workgroup bridge and a protocol analyzer
Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Many computer users connect to the Internet at airports, which often have 802.11n access points with a
captive portal for authentication. While using an airport hotspot with this security solution, to what type of
wireless attack is a user susceptible?
A. Wi-Fi phishing
B. Management interface exploits
C. UDP port redirection
D. IGMP snooping
Candidates for this exam are Microsoft Teams Administrators for their
organization. The Microsoft Teams Administrator configures, deploys, and manages
Office 365 workloads for Microsoft Teams that focus on efficient and effective
collaboration and communication in an enterprise environment.
The Teams Administrator must be able to plan, deploy, and manage Teams chat,
apps, channels, meetings, audio conferencing, live events, and calling. The
Teams Administrator is also responsible for upgrading from Skype for Business to
Teams.
The Teams Administrator collaborates with Telephony engineers to integrate
advanced voice features into Microsoft Teams. This role is not responsible for
configuring direct routing, configuring call routing, or integrating telephony.
The Teams Administrator may work with other workload administrator roles,
including security and compliance, messaging, networking, identity, and devices.
Candidates for this exam should be proficient at managing Teams settings by
using PowerShell. The Teams Administrator has a fundamental understanding of
integration points with apps and services, including but not limited to
SharePoint, OneDrive for Business, Exchange, Azure AD, and Office 365 Groups.
The Teams Administrator understands how to integrate external apps and services.
Part of the requirements for: Microsoft 365 Certified: Teams Administrator
Associate
Related exams: none
Skills measured
Plan and Configure a Microsoft Teams Environment (45-50%)
Manage Chat, Calling, and Meetings (30-35%)
Manage Teams and App Policies (20-25%)
QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have
more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You plan to configure the environment to allow external users to collaborate in Microsoft Teams by using guest
access.
The company implements a new security policy that has the following requirements:
Only guest users from specific domains must be allowed to connect to collaborate by using Microsoft
Teams.
Guest users must be prevented from inviting other guests.
You need to recommend a solution to meet the security policy requirements.
Solution: From the Microsoft Teams admin center, you modify the global meeting policy.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have
more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You plan to configure the environment to allow external users to collaborate in Microsoft Teams by using guest
access.
The company implements a new security policy that has the following requirements:
Only guest users from specific domains must be allowed to connect to collaborate by using Microsoft
Teams.
Guest users must be prevented from inviting other guests.
You need to recommend a solution to meet the security policy requirements.
Solution: From PowerShell, you run the New-AzureADPolicy and Set-AzureADPolicy cmdlets.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have
more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You plan to configure the environment to allow external users to collaborate in Microsoft Teams by using guest
access.
The company implements a new security policy that has the following requirements:
Only guest users from specific domains must be allowed to connect to collaborate by using Microsoft
Teams.
Guest users must be prevented from inviting other guests.
You need to recommend a solution to meet the security policy requirements.
Solution: From the Azure Active Directory, you modify the External collaboration settings.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have
more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription that uses an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named
contoso.com.
You need to prevent guest users in the tenant from using cameras during Microsoft Teams meetings.
Solution: From the Azure Active Directory admin center, you modify the External collaboration settings.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have
more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription that uses an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named
contoso.com.
You need to prevent guest users in the tenant from using cameras during Microsoft Teams meetings.
Solution: From Microsoft Teams admin center, you modify the External collaboration settings.
Does this meet the goal?
QUESTION 1 A developer needs to create a banner component. This component shows an
image across the full width of the
page. A title is shown on top of the image. This text can be aligned to the
left, middle, or right. The core
components feature a teaser component which matches almost all requirements, but
not all.
What is the most maintainable way for the developer to implement these
requirements?
A. Use and configure the teaser core component.
B. Create a new custom component from scratch.
C. Overlay the teaser core component.
D. Inherit from the teaser core component.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 A developer is working on a complex project with multiple bundles. One
bundle provides an OSGi service for other bundles.
Which two options are necessary to ensure that the other bundles can reference
that OSGi service? (Choose two.)
A. The bundles consuming the service need to import the fully qualified name of
the service interface.
B. The service needs to correctly declare metatype information.
C. The bundle providing the service needs to contain a whitelist of allowed
consumer bundles.
D. The bundle providing the service needs to contain an adequate SCR descriptor
file.
E. The bundle providing the service needs to export the java package of the
service interface.
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 3 The structure section of an editable template has a locked component.
What happens to the content of that component when a developer unlocks it?
A. The content stays in the same place but it ignored on pages using the
template.
B. The content is moved to the initial section of the editable template.
C. The content is deleted after confirmation from the template author.
D. The content is copied to the initial section of the editable template.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 Which log file contains AEM application request and response entries?
A. response.log
B. request.log
C. history.log
D. audit.log
QUESTION 1
Which security feature would you configure to delegate responsibility for a
subset of resources to a junior administrator group?
A. No Password for admin account
B. SBAC (Scope Based Access Control)
C. CLI Only access
D. RBAC (Role Based Access Control)
Answer: B
QUESTION 2 An administrator needs to add multiple BladeSystem c7000 enclosures to a new
instance of HPE OneView.
The enclosures are currently being monitored by a different instance of HPE
OneView.
What must the administrator do before beginning importing the enclosure to the
new HPE OneView appliance?
A. Add Frame Link Module.
B. Edit the Enclosure license to be HPE OneView Advanced.
C. Add enclosure for management.
D. Delete the enclosure from the current HPE OneView Appliance.
Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Your customer is planning to use HPE OneView to manage the following
environment:
- 4 HPE BladeSystem c7000 enclosures with BL460c Gen10 and Virtual Connect
modules
- 20 HPE ProLiant DL380 Gen10 servers
- 1 HPE 3PAR StoreServ array
Which components will need an HPE OneView license? (Choose two)
A. Virtual Connect modules
B. c7000 enclosures
C. 3PAR array
D. BL460c Gen10 server blades
E. DL380 Gen10 servers
Answer: C,D
QUESTION 4 Which HPE OneView feature enables the detection of lost Ethernet
connectivity on interconnect uplink ports?
A. M-LAG
B. Smart Link
C. QoS
D. VxLAN
Answer: B
QUESTION 5 What mechanism does HPE OneView use to get status data from devices as a
fail-safe approach to SNMP traps?
A. Periodic Polling
B. Dashboard charts
C. SNMP trap storms
D. REST API
QUESTION 1 What is a reason for a company to choose to deploy an Aruba 7024 Mobility
Controller (MC) rather than an Aruba 7010 MC
A. to support 802.11ac Aps rather than only 802.11n APs
B. to support more wireless users
C. to support more POE devices directly connected to the MC
D. to support a faster firewall throughput rate
Answer: C
QUESTION 2 A company wants to provide wireless access for guests with their Aruba
solution. Which configuration feature requires the customer to purchase PEFNG
licenses?
A. redirection of guests to an external captive portal
B. provision of DHCP services to unauthenticated guests
C. addition of custom rules to control access for authenticated guests
D. customization of the internal captive portal login page
Answer: C
QUESTION 3 A company has an Aruba Mobility Master (MM)-based solution. A network
administrator wants to collect and analyze information about clients and access
points (APs) over extended periods of time.
What should the administrator do to achieve this goal?
A. Add Aruba AirWave to the solution.
B. Run a Traffic Analysis report on the MM.
C. Make sure that MM has sufficient AppRF licenses.
D. Enable archival from the MM interface Maintenance windows.
Answer: A
QUESTION 4
What is a requirment for the Dashboard > Traffic Analysis window on the Aruba
Mobility Master (MM) to show data?
A. Airmatch and ClientMatch must be enabled.
B. The solution must have active PEFNG licenses.
C. Firewall policies must include application filtering rules.
D. WLANs must use the decrypt-tunnel forwarding option.
Answer: B QUESTION 5 How can network administrators upgrade AirMatch on an Aruba Mobility Master
(MM)?
A. Upgrade Client Match as part of a global software upgrade, and upgrade
AirMatch separately as a loadable service module (LSM).
B. Upgrade AirMatch as part of a global software upgrade, and upgrade Client
Match separately as a loadable service module (LSM).
C. Upgrade AirMatch and Client Match through a global software upgrade.
D. Upgrade Client Match and AirMacth separately as a loadable service modules (LSMs).
Exam ID : HPE6-A45
Exam type Proctored
Exam duration 1 hour 30 minutes
Exam length 60 questions
Passing score 67%
Delivery languages English, Japanese
Supporting resources These recommended resources help you prepare for the exam:
Implementing Aruba Switching, Rev. 17.41
Additional study materials Aruba Certified Switching Professional Study Guide
Register for this Exam You need an HPE Learner ID and a Pearson VUE login and
password.
No reference material is allowed at the testing site. This exam may contain beta
test items for experimental purposes.
During the exam, you can make comments about the exam items. We welcome these
comments as part of our continuous improvement process.
Exam description This exam tests your skills with wired configurations of Aruba Mobile First
Solutions in complex two-tier and three-tier networks with redundancy. It tests
your skills to build to a given implementation plan and deploy consistent wired
access control technologies to mirror the wireless access control policies. It
also tests your ability to configure specialized applications and security
requirements for a LAN.
Ideal candidate for this exam
Typical candidates for this exam are networking IT professionals who have
advanced-level implementation experience with ArubaOS wired switching solutions.
This candidate has a minimum of 4 to 5 years of general networking experience
and 2 years of experience focused on interpreting network architectures and
customer requirements to install and configure Aruba solutions.
Exam contents This exam has 60 questions.
Advice to help you take this exam Complete the training and review all course materials and documents before
you take the exam.
Use HPE Press study guides and additional reference materials; study guides,
practice tests, and HPE books.
Exam items are based on expected knowledge acquired from job experience, an
expected level of industry standard knowledge, or other prerequisites (events,
supplemental materials, etc.).
Successful completion of the course or study materials alone, does not ensure
you will pass the exam.
Objectives This exam validates that you can:
Percentage of Exam Sections/Objectives
14% Plan the wired network solution. Given a scenario with an architect's design and/or customer requirements,
identify gaps between the design and customer requirements.
Given a scenario with an architect's design and/or customer requirements,
determine an appropriate implementation, monitoring, and management plan.
46% Install and configure the wired network solution. Given an implementation plan, configure backplane stacking and VSF.
Given an implementation plan, explain how to configure Layer 2 technologies.
Given an implementation plan, explain how to configure and validate Layer 3
interfaces, services, routing protocols and overlays.
Explain multicast features and configuration concepts.
Explain ArubaOS-Switch security features and configuration concepts.
Explain QoS ArubaOS-Switch features and configuration concepts.
Explain mobility integration features and configuration concepts.
27% Troubleshoot the wired network solution. Given a scenario, identify a failure such as an IP mismatch, VLAN mismatch,
hardware failure, or configuration error.
Given an action plan to remediate an issue, determine the implications to the
network state.
Given a scenario, determine the cause of the performance problem such as QoS
issue, configuration issue with hardware and software, and end node.
Given a scenario, predict the outcome based on the changes to the security
configuration.
Given a scenario with an identified security issue, determine the remediation
actions.
13% Manage, maintain, optimize, and monitor the wired network solution. Given a scenario, determine a strategy to implement configuration management
(maintenance, auditing, backup, archiving) and to monitor the network.
Analyze data that represents the operational state of a network and determine
the appropriate action.
Sample questions Sample questions are provided only as examples of question style, format and
complexity/difficulty. They do not represent all question types and do not
reflect all topic areas. These sample questions do not represent a practice
test.
QUESTION 2
An administrator wants to ensure that an AOS-Switch forwards all traffic that it
receives on interface 1 with high priority.
- Switches should also communicate the high priority to other switches across
the traffic path.
- The switch has type of service disabled.
- The administrator plans to apply 802.1p priority 5 to interface 1.
QUESTION 1
What should the administrator check to ensure that the configuration will work
properly?
A. Interface 1 receives traffic with a tag.
B. The AOS-Switch is configured to use eight queues.
C. The forwarding path for the traffic uses VLAN tags.
D. An 802.1p-to-DSCP map exists for priority 5.
Answer: A
QUESTION 2 An AOS-Switch implements tunneled node.
Which benefit does the PAPI enhanced security key provide?
A. It validates the signature for firmware pushed to the switch dynamically.
B. It encrypts traffic sent and received by tunneled-node endpoints.
C. It authenticates control traffic between the switch and its Mobility
Controller.
D. It provides an extra layer of authentication for endpoints on tunneled-node
ports.
Answer: C
QUESTION 3 OSPF Area 1 has two ABRs. One ABR is configured with this range for Area 1:
10.10.0.0/16. The other ABR is not configured with a range for Area 1.
Which type of issue occurs due to this mismatch?
A. The ABRs create a discontinuous area and disrupt intra-area routing between
devices within Area 1.
B. The ABR core would send Area 1 traffic destined to the other switch through
an access switch.
C. The ABRs lose adjacency entirely and cannot route traffic between each other
at all.
D. The ABRs lose adjacency in Area 1 and must route all traffic to each other
through Area 0.
Answer: A
QUESTION 4 What must an OSPF router do to ensure nonstop routing should a standby
member take over as commander when the original VSF commander fails?
A. It must run the shortest path first algorithm.
B. It must participate in a new election for the Designated Router.
C. It must initiate a graceful restart.
D. It must re-establish adjacency with its Designated Router.
