Introduction
The ServiceNow Certified System Administrator Exam Specification defines the
purpose, audience, testing options, exam content coverage, test framework, and
prerequisites to become a ServiceNow Certified System Administrator.
Exam Purpose The ServiceNow System Administrator Certification demonstrates that a
successful candidate has the skills and essential knowledge to contribute to the
configuration, implementation, and maintenance of the ServiceNow system.
Successfully passing this Certification exam also establishes a set of skills
necessary to continue in the ServiceNow Certification paths. It is a
prerequisite for advanced courses.
Exam Audience The ServiceNow System Administrator Certification exam is available to
ServiceNow customers, partners, sales engineers, and others interested in
becoming a ServiceNow Certified System Administrator.
Exam Preparation Exam questions are based on official ServiceNow training materials, the
ServiceNow documentation site, and the ServiceNow developer site. Study
materials posted elsewhere online are not official and should not be used to
prepare for the examination.
Prerequisite ServiceNow Training Path ServiceNow requires the completion of the following prerequisite training
course in preparation for the Certified System Administrator exam. Information
provided in the following ServiceNow training course contains source material
for the exam.
• ServiceNow Fundamentals - *Upon completion, the candidate will be issued a
voucher code to register for the Certified System Administrator exam.
Exam Scope Exam content is divided into Learning Domains that correspond to key topics
and activities typically encountered during ServiceNow implementations. In each
Learning Domain, specific learning objectives have been identified and are
tested in the exam.
The following table shows the learning domains, weightings, and sub-skills
measured by this exam and the percentage of questions represented in each
domain. The listed sub-skills should NOT be considered an all-inclusive list of
exam content.
Learning Domain % of Exam 1 User Interface & Navigation 20% Collaboration
20% 3 Database Administration 30% Self-Service & Process Automation
20% 5 Intro to Scripting & Application Tools 10%
Exam Registration Each candidate must register for the exam via the ServiceNow Webassessor
website using a voucher obtained by completing the ServiceNow Fundamentals
training prerequisite.
During the registration process, each test taker has the option of taking the
exam at an Authorized Testing Center or as an online-proctored exam. In both
testing venues, the Certified Implementation Specialist exam is done through a
consistent, friendly, user interface customized for ServiceNow tests.
ServiceNow, the ServiceNow logo, Now, and other ServiceNow marks are trademarks
and/or registered trademarks of ServiceNow, Inc., in the United States
and/or other countries. Other company names, product names, and logos may be
trademarks of the respective companies with which they are associated.
Exam Structure The exam consists of approximately (60) questions. For each question on the
examination, there are multiple possible responses. The person taking the exam
reviews the response options and selects the most correct answer to the
question.
Multiple Choice (single answer)
For each multiple-choice question on the exam, there are at least four possible
responses. The candidate taking the exam reviews the response options and
selects the one response which most accurately answers the question.
Multiple Select (select all that apply)
For each multiple-select question on the exam, there are at least four possible
responses. The question will state how many responses should be selected. The
candidate taking the exam reviews the response options and selects ALL responses
that accurately answer the question. Multiple-select questions have two or more
correct responses.
Exam Results After completing and submitting the exam, a pass or fail result is
immediately calculated and displayed to the candidate. More detailed results are
not provided to the candidate.
Exam Retakes
QUESTION 1
A Service Catalog may include which of the following components?
A. Order Guides, Exchange Rates, Calendars
B. Order Guides, Catalog Items, and Interceptors
C. Catalog Items, Asset Contracts, Task Surveys
D. Record Producers, Order Guides, and Catalog Items
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 Which one of the following statements applies to a set of fields when they
are coalesced during an import?
A. If a match is found using the coalesce fields, the existing record is updated
with the information being imported
B. If a match is not found using the coalesce fields, the system does not create
a Transform Map
C. If a match is found using the coalesce fields, the system creates a new
record
D. If a match is not found using the coalesce fields, the existing record is
updated with the information being imported
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 As it relates to ServiceNow reporting, which of the following statements
describes what a metric can do?
A. A metric is a report gauge used on homepages to display real-time data
B. A metric is a time measurement used to report the effectiveness of workflows
and SLAs
C. A metric is used to measure and evaluate the effectiveness of IT service
management processes
D. A metric is a comparative measurement used to report the effectiveness of
workflows and SLAs.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 The display sequence is controlled in a Service Catalog Item using which of
the following?
A. The Default Value field in the Catalog Item form
B. The Sequence field in the Catalog Item form
C. The Order field in the Variable form
D. The Choice field in the Variable form
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 Reports can be created from which different places in the platform? (Choose
two.)
A. List column heading
B. Metrics module
C. Statistics module
D. View / Run module
Specialist - Implementation Engineer, Dell EMC Unity Solutions Version 2.0
Overview This certification validates the candidate’s knowledge of key product
related activities including installation, configuration and management of Dell
EMC Unity and Dell EMC Unity XT Systems. The Dell EMC UnityVSA and product
features such as Snapshots, Replication for block and file storage, data
reduction, dynamic pools, upgrades, and system hardware are also covered.
Certification Requirements To complete the requirements for this certification you must:
1. Achieve one of the following Associate level certifications*
• Associate - Information Storage and Management Version 1.0
• Associate - Information Storage and Management Version 2.0
• Associate - Information Storage and Management Version 3.0
• Associate - Information Storage and Management Version 4.0
2. Pass the following Specialist exam on or after July 19, 2019:
• E20-393 Specialist – Implementation Engineer, Dell EMC Unity Solutions Exam
Note: These details reflect certification requirements as of July 19, 2019.
The Proven Professional Program periodically updates certification requirements.
*Please check the Proven Professional CertTracker website regularly for the
latest information and for other options to meet the Associate level
requirement.
Other Certification Recommendations Once you have achieved this Certification you may be interested in:
• Specialist – Implementation Engineer, SC Series Version 1.0
Overview This exam is a qualifying exam for the Specialist - Implementation Engineer,
Dell EMC Unity Solutions (DCS-IE) track.
This exam tests the candidate’s knowledge to install, configure and manage Dell
EMC Unity Systems and Dell EMC Unity XT Systems as well as the Dell EMC UnityVSA.
This exam also tests the candidate’s knowledge of key product features
including, but not limited to, Snapshots, Replication for block and file
storage, data reduction, dynamic pools, upgrades, and system hardware.
Dell Technologies provides free practice tests to assess your knowledge in
preparation for the exam. Practice tests allow you to become familiar with the
topics and question types you will find on the proctored exam. Your results on a
practice test offer one indication of how prepared you are for the proctored
exam and can highlight topics on which you need to study and train further. A
passing score on the practice test does not guarantee a passing score on the
certification exam.
Products Products likely to be referred to on this exam include but are not limited
to:
• Dell EMC Unity
• Dell EMC Unity XT
• Dell EMC Unity VSA
Exam Topics Topics likely to be covered on this exam include:
Dell EMC Unity Platform Concepts, Features, and Architecture (10%) • Describe the Dell EMC Unity platform architecture, features, and functions
• Describe the Dell EMC UnityVSA software defined storage solution
• Identify the Dell EMC Unity XT hardware components: DPE, SPE, DAE, expansion
modules
Dell EMC Unity XT and UnityVSA Installation and Service (13%) • Describe how to install and initialize a Dell EMC Unity XT storage system
• Describe how to deploy and initialize a Dell EMC UnityVSA system
• Identify key service tasks and related resources
• Describe the Dell EMC Unity Platform service functions, including alert
levels, event logs, CRU replacement
Dell EMC Unity XT and UnityVSA System Administratio (7%) • Identify and describe the user interfaces for monitoring and managing the
Dell EMC Unity family of storage systems
• Describe how the support and basic system settings are configured for system
administration
Dell EMC Unity XT and UnityVSA Storage Provisioning and Access (25%) • Describe the different types of storage pools - traditional and dynamic -
and how they are provisioned
• Describe dynamic pool expansion, considerations for mixing drive sizes and the
rebuild process
• Describe how to provision block, file and VMware datastore storage
• Describe how to configure host access to block storage resources
• Describe how to configure NAS client access to SMB and NFS file storage
resources
• Describe how to configure VMware ESXi hosts to access VMware datastore storage
resources
Storage Efficiency, Scalability, and Performance Features (23%) • Describe the nature and use of FAST Cache performance feature
• Describe the nature and use of the Host I/O performance feature
• Describe the nature and use of the File Level Retention feature
• Describe the nature and use of UFS64 file system scalability feature and the
File System Quotas feature
• Describe the nature and use of the Data Reduction efficiency feature
• Describe the nature and use of the FAST VP Tiering efficiency feature
• Describe the nature and use of Thin Clones feature
Data Protection and Mobility (22%) • Describe the nature and use of the mobility features Local LUN Move and
Local NAS Server mobility
• Describe the Snapshots data protection feature and how snapshots are created
• Describe how snapshot operations are performed on storage resources
• Describe the Replication data protection feature
• Describe how to create synchronous and asynchronous replication sessions for
storage resources
• Describe synchronous and asynchronous replication operations for storage
resources
The percentages after each topic above reflects the approximate distribution of
the total question set across the exam.
Recommended Training There are two different curriculum paths recommended for candidates
preparing to take this exam, based on their audience group.
QUESTION 1 A storage administrator has requested a recommendation on upgrading their
VNX5600 to a comparable Unity
storage array. The solution requires a maximum capacity of 3.5 PB.
To meet the administrator's requirement without over provisioning the capacity,
which Unity Hybrid storage array is recommended?
A. Unity 300
B. Unity 400
C. Unity 500
D. Unity 600
Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:
Unity 600 delivers 1.2 TB to 3.0 PB max raw capacity.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Unity 300 delivers 3.6 TB to 900 TB max raw capacity
B: Unity 400 delivers 1.2 PB to 1.5 PB max raw capacity
C: Unity 500 delivers 1.2 TB to 2.1 PB max raw capacity
Reference: https://store.emc.com/us/Product-Family/EMC-Unity-Products/EMC-Unity-600-Hybrid-Flash-
Storage/p/EMC-Unity-600-Hybrid-Storage
QUESTION 2 What is the minimum VMware Hypervisor version a server must be running in
order to support the deployment of a UnityVSA system?
QUESTION 3 Which feature is supported on a UnityVSA operating environment?
A. Asynchronous Replication
B. MCC Write Caching
C. Quick Start Pool Provisioning
D. Data at Rest Encryption
Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
Asynchronous Unified Replication is available natively on UnityVSA. This allows
file and block resources to be
replicated between UnityVSA systems, between UnityVSA and physical Unity
systems, and also locally back to
the same UnityVSA system
QUESTION 4 A storage administrator is creating a host profile in Unisphere to provide
host access to block storage
resources using the iSCSI protocol. The host initiators were not automatically
discovered and must be manually added.
In addition to the SAN host IQN, what other configuration can be performed
through the "Create iSCSI Initiator Wizard" window?
A. Enable and disable CHAP settings
B. Create Mutual CHAP secret
C. Create Global CHAP secret
D. Enter CHAP username and secret
Exam AZ-500: Microsoft Azure Security Technologies
Candidates for this exam are Microsoft Azure security engineers who implement
security controls, maintain the security posture, manages identity and access,
and protects data, applications, and networks. Candidates identify and remediate
vulnerabilities by using a variety of security tools, implements threat
protection, and responds to security incident escalations. As a Microsoft Azure
security engineer, candidates often serve as part of a larger team dedicated to
cloud-based management and security and may also secure hybrid environments as
part of an end-to-end infrastructure.
Candidates for this exam should have strong skills in scripting and automation,
a deep understanding of networking, virtualization, and cloud N-tier
architecture, and a strong familiarity with cloud capabilities, Microsoft Azure
products and services, and other Microsoft products and services. Less
Fulfills requirements for: Microsoft Certified: Azure Security Engineer
Associate
Languages: English, Japanese, Chinese (Simplified), Korean
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the following technical tasks:
manage identity and access; implement platform protection; manage security
operations; and secure data and applications.
Manage identity and access (20-25%)
Configure Microsoft Azure Active Directory for workloads
create App registration
configure App registration permission scopes
manage App registration permission consent
configure multi-factor authentication settings
manage Microsoft Azure AD directory groups
manage Microsoft Azure AD users
install and configure Microsoft Azure AD Connect
configure authentication methods
implement conditional access policies
configure Microsoft Azure AD identity protection
Configure Microsoft Azure AD Privileged Identity Management
transfer Microsoft Azure subscriptions between Microsoft Azure AD tenants
manage API access to Microsoft Azure subscriptions and resources
Implement platform protection (35-40%)
Implement network security
configure virtual network connectivity
configure Network Security Groups (NSGs)
create and configure Microsoft Azure firewall
create and configure application security groups
configure remote access management
configure baseline
configure resource firewall
Implement host security
configure endpoint security within the VM
configure VM security
harden VMs in Microsoft Azure
configure system updates for VMs in Microsoft Azure
configure baseline
Implement Microsoft Azure Resource management security
create Microsoft Azure resource locks
manage resource group security
configure Microsoft Azure policies
configure custom RBAC roles
configure subscription and resource permissions
Manage security operations (15-20%)
Configure security services
configure Microsoft Azure monitor
configure Microsoft Azure log analytics
configure diagnostic logging and log retention
configure vulnerability scanning
Configure security policies
configure centralized policy management by using Microsoft Azure Security Center
configure Just in Time VM access by using Microsoft Azure Security Center
Manage security alerts
create and customize alerts
review and respond to alerts and recommendations
configure a playbook for a security event by using Microsoft Azure Security
Center
investigate escalated security incidents
Secure data and applications (30-35%)
Configure security policies to manage data
configure data classification
configure data retention
configure data sovereignty
Configure security for data infrastructure
enable database authentication
enable database auditing
configure Microsoft Azure SQL Database threat detection
configure access control for storage accounts
configure key management for storage accounts
create and manage Shared Access Signatures (SAS)
configure security for HDInsights
configure security for Cosmos DB
configure security for Microsoft Azure Data Lake
Configure encryption for data at rest
implement Microsoft Azure SQL Database Always Encrypted
implement database encryption
implement Storage Service Encryption
implement disk encryption
implement backup encryption
Implement security for application delivery
implement security validations for application development
configure synthetic security transactions
Configure application security
configure SSL/TLS certs
configure Microsoft Azure services to protect web apps
create an application security baseline
QUESTION 2
You need to ensure that User2 can implement PIM.
What should you do first?
A. Assign User2 the Global administrator role.
B. Configure authentication methods for contoso.com.
C. Configure the identity secure score for contoso.com.
D. Enable multi-factor authentication (MFA) for User2.
Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
To start using PIM in your directory, you must first enable PIM.
1. Sign in to the Azure portal as a Global Administrator of your directory.
You must be a Global Administrator with an organizational account (for example, @yourdomain.com), not a
Microsoft account (for example, @outlook.com), to enable PIM for a directory.
Scenario: Technical requirements include: Enable Azure AD Privileged Identity Management (PIM) for
contoso.com
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/bs-latn-ba/azure/active-directory/privileged-identity-management/pim-gettingstarted
QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have
more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure Subscription named Sub1.
You have an Azure Storage account named Sa1 in a resource group named RG1.
Users and applications access the blob service and the file service in Sa1 by using several shared access
signatures (SASs) and stored access policies.
You discover that unauthorized users accessed both the file service and the blob service.
You need to revoke all access to Sa1.
Solution: You generate new SASs.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
Instead you should create a new stored access policy.
To revoke a stored access policy, you can either delete it, or rename it by changing the signed identifier.
Changing the signed identifier breaks the associations between any existing signatures and the stored access
policy. Deleting or renaming the stored access policy immediately affects all of the shared access signatures
associated with it.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/rest/api/storageservices/Establishing-a-Stored-Access-Policy
QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have
more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure Subscription named Sub1.
You have an Azure Storage account named Sa1 in a resource group named RG1.
Users and applications access the blob service and the file service in Sa1 by using several shared access
signatures (SASs) and stored access policies.
You discover that unauthorized users accessed both the file service and the blob service.
You need to revoke all access to Sa1.
Solution: You create a new stored access policy.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
To revoke a stored access policy, you can either delete it, or rename it by changing the signed identifier.
Changing the signed identifier breaks the associations between any existing signatures and the stored access
policy. Deleting or renaming the stored access policy immediately effects all of the shared access signatures
associated with it.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/rest/api/storageservices/Establishing-a-Stored-Access-Policy
QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have
more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have a hybrid configuration of Azure Active Directory (Azure AD).
You have an Azure HDInsight cluster on a virtual network.
You plan to allow users to authenticate to the cluster by using their on-premises Active Directory credentials.
You need to configure the environment to support the planned authentication.
Solution: You deploy the On-premises data gateway to the on-premises network.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
Instead, you connect HDInsight to your on-premises network by using Azure Virtual Networks and a VPN
gateway.
Note: To allow HDInsight and resources in the joined network to communicate by name, you must perform the
following actions:
Create Azure Virtual Network.
Create a custom DNS server in the Azure Virtual Network.
Configure the virtual network to use the custom DNS server instead of the default Azure Recursive
Resolver.
Configure forwarding between the custom DNS server and your on-premises DNS server.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/hdinsight/connect-on-premises-network
PECIALIST Enterprise Routing and Switching, Specialist (JNCIS-ENT)
Designed for experienced networking professionals with beginner to intermediate
knowledge of routing and switching implementations in Junos, this written exam
verifies the candidate’s basic understanding of routing and switching
technologies and related platform configuration and troubleshooting skills.
Prerequisite certification
JNCIA-Junos
Exam Details
JNCIS-ENT exam topics are based on the content of the recommended instructor-led
training courses, as well as the additional resources.
Exam code: JN0-348
Written exam
Administered by Pearson VUE
Exam length: 90 minutes
Exam type: 65 multiple-choice questions
Pass/fail status is available immediately
Software Release:
Junos 18.4
Junos Space Network Director 3.1
Exam Objectives
This list provides a general view of the skill set required to successfully
complete the specified certification exam.
Identify the concepts, operation, or functionality of Layer 2 switching for the
Junos OS
Bridging components
Frame processing
Describe the concepts, benefits, or functionality of VLANs
Ports
Tagging
Native VLANs and voice VLANs
Inter-VLAN routing
Demonstrate knowledge how to configure, monitor or troubleshoot Layer 2
switching or VLANs
Interfaces and ports
VLANs
Junos Network Director
Inter-VLAN Routing
Describe the concepts, benefits, operation, or functionality of the Spanning
Tree Protocol
STP and RSTP concepts
Port roles and states
BPDUs
Convergence and reconvergence
Demonstrate knowledge how to configure, monitor, or troubleshoot STP and RSTP
STP
RSTP
Identify the concepts, benefits or operation of various Layer 2 protection or
security features
BPDU, loop or root protection
Port security, including MAC limiting, DHCP snooping, Dynamic ARP inspection
(DAI) or IP source guard
MACsec
Storm control
Identify the concepts, benefits or operation of Layer 2 firewall filters
Filter types
Processing order
Match criteria and actions
Demonstrate knowledge how to configure, monitor, or troubleshoot Layer 2
security
Protection
Port security
Storm control
Firewall filter configuration and application
Identify the concepts, operation or functionality of various
protocol-independent routing components
Static, aggregate, and generated routes
Martian addresses
Routing instances, including RIB groups
Load balancing
Filter-based forwarding
Demonstrate knowledge how to configure, monitor, or troubleshoot various
protocol-independent routing components
Static, aggregate, and generated routes
Load balancing
Filter-based forwarding
Describe the concepts, operation or functionality of OSPF
Link-state database
OSPF packet types
Router ID
Adjacencies and neighbors
Designated router (DR) and backup designated router (BDR)
OSPF area and router types
Realms
LSA packet types
Demonstrate knowledge how to configure, monitor or troubleshoot OSPF
Areas, interfaces and neighbors
Additional basic options
Routing policy application
Troubleshooting tools (e.g., ping, traceroute,trace options, show commands,
logging)
Describe the concepts, operation or functionality of IS-IS
Link-state database
IS-IS PDUs
TLVs
Adjacencies and neighbors
Levels and areas
Designated intermediate system (DIS)
Metrics
Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, monitor or troubleshoot IS-IS
Levels, interfaces and adjacencies
Additional basic options
Routing policy application
Troubleshooting tools (e.g., ping, traceroute, trace options, show commands,
logging)
Describe the concepts, operation or functionality of BGP
BGP basic operation
BGP message types
Attributes
Route/path selection process
IBGP and EBGP functionality and interaction
Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, monitor, or troubleshoot BGP
Groups and peers
Additional basic options
Routing policy application
Troubleshooting tools (e.g., ping, traceroute,trace options, show commands,
logging)
Identify the concepts, requirements or functionality of IP tunneling
Tunneling applications and considerations
GRE/UDP
IP-IP
Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, monitor or troubleshoot IP tunnels
GRE/UDP
IP-IP
Troubleshooting tools (e.g., ping, traceroute, trace options, show commands,
logging)
Identify the concepts, benefits, applications or requirements for high
availability in a Junos OS environment
Link aggregation groups (LAG)
Redundant trunk groups (RTG)
Virtual Chassis
Graceful restart (GR)
Graceful Routing Engine switchover (GRES)
Nonstop active routing (NSR)
Nonstop bridging (NSB)
Bidirectional Forwarding Detection (BFD)
Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
Unified In-Service Software Upgrade (ISSU)
Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, monitor, or troubleshoot high
availability components
LAG and RTG
Virtual Chassis
GR, GRES, NSB, and NSR
VRRP
ISSU
Troubleshooting tools (e.g., trace options, show commands, logging)
Preparation
The resources listed on this section are recommended, but do not guarantee
passing scores on JNCP exams. Success depends on each candidate's motivation,
experience, and dedication. Candidates may find additional resources not listed
on this page helpful as well.
Exam description This Master ASE level exam tests knowledge and skills required for Storage
Architects and Storage Consultants. The exam tests the ability to design and
deliver a complete and supported multi-site, multi-array and/or complex storage
solution that meets customer requirements.
Exam ID HPE0-J58
Exam type Proctored
Exam duration 2 hours
Exam length 60 questions
Passing score 66%
Delivery languages English, Japanese
Related certifications HPE Master ASE - Storage Solutions Architect V3
Supporting resources These recommended resources help you prepare for the exam:
Register for this Exam You need an HPE Learner ID and a Pearson VUE login and password.
No reference material is allowed at the testing site. This exam may contain beta
test items for experimental purposes.
During the exam, you can make comments about the exam items. We welcome these
comments as part of our continuous improvement process.
HPE Master ASE - Storage Solutions Architect V3
This certification verifies that you can Identify enterprise storage and backup opportunities and then plan, design,
and size the right solution for multi-site environments.
Design solutions that include requirements to manage, monitor, administer, and
operate HPE Storage Enterprise and Backup Solutions including the ability to
install, configure, and demo proof-of-concepts.
Optimize, performance-tune, and upgrade your customer's HPE Storage solutions.
Recommend, explain, and use HPE Nimble storage solutions.
Why earn this certification? To differentiate yourself as a master storage technologist by holding one of
HPE's most distinguished certifications.
To maximize your credibility as a knowledgeable expert in the latest storage
technologies including Flash and Nimble Storage, Software-Defined Storage (SDS),
and HyperConverged Appliances.
To demonstrate your ability to design enterprise, multi-site complex storage
solutions that reduce cost and risk while increasing performance and value.
To establish a competitive advantage with HPE's highest storage credential that
sets you apart as an IT trusted advisor who optimally deploys complex storage
solutions.
To advance your career and enhance your job satisfaction as an HPE Master
Accredited Solutions Expert.
To become a part of the elite community of Master ASE Storage professionals with
access to HPE technical experts and exclusive special events.
Candidate Typical candidates for this certification are experienced Storage Architects
who lead a team that designs multiple site, enterprise storage solutions. These
architects leverage HPE Converged Storage solutions for various customer
environments. Successful candidates should have a minimum of three to five years
experience.
Skill level
Master
Steps to acquire this certification
Before you begin:
Acquire access to The Learning Center and get an HPE Learner ID. Then create a
profile with Pearson VUE, our exam delivery vendor.
Learn how in the Learning Center Assist Kit.
Step 1: Do you qualify for an upgrade path? HPE Master ASE - Storage Solutions Architect V3 - upgrade from HPE Master
ASE - Storage Solutions Architect V2
Step 2: Register or apply for this certification Register for this certification in The Learning Center
Step 3: Verify or complete prerequisites You must have 1 of these:
HPE ASE - Hybrid IT Solutions Architect V1
HPE ASE - Storage Solutions Architect V3
HPE ASE - Storage Solutions Integrator V2
Step 4: Complete recommended training Training is highly recommended. Training helps you pass the exam. Training
is not required for most certifications.
Course # Course Name Format - Typical duration Register for course
Training for Exam HPE0-J58: Designing Multi-Site HPE Storage Solutions
01120594 01120594: Designing Multi-Site HPE Storage Solutions, Rev. 18.41 VILT -
5 days
ILT - 5 days Register
WBT = Web Based ILT = Instructor Led VILT = Virtual Instructor Led VCR - Virtual
Class Recorded SCA = Special Course or Activity
Step 5: Pass the required exams Complete:
Exam # Exam name Register for exam
HPE0-J58 Designing Multi-Site HPE Storage Solutions Register
Certification achieved
Three to five days after you complete all requirements, you receive an email
notification. Then your status in The Learning Center becomes “acquired”. If you
achieved this certification through an upgrade path, you also achieve:
HPE ATP - Storage Solutions V3
HPE ASE - Storage Solutions Architect V3
Track your training and certification progress through your transcripts in the
Learning Center.
Digital Badge
Based on the Open Badges Standard, digital badges are online representations of
your HPE certifications. Each badge is unique to you. Once you accept and place
your badge online—in LinkedIn, Twitter, your email signature, for
example—clicking on the badge sends the viewer to a custom verification page
that includes your name, HPE certification(s) held, and the skills and
capabilities required of the certification. Click here for more information on
HPE digital badges.
Objectives This exam validates that you can:
Sections/Objectives
10% Describe, evaluate, and apply advanced storage architectures and
technologies Describe technologies and typical use cases for SAN technologies related to
multi-site solutions
Describe technologies and typical use cases for multi-site storage network
management
Evaluate and recommend advanced backup systems technology
Describe technologies and typical use cases for multi-site data protection and
business continuity
Describe technologies and typical use cases for unified block, file, and object
storage architecture for multi-site solutions
25% Describe and evaluate HPE Storage portfolio and associated service
offerings and apply to complex customer use cases Describe the HPE enterprise storage strategy for multi-site and multi-array
solutions
Given a set of business requirements, position HPE Storage solutions for complex
storage configurations
Identify and recommend HPE storage tools and resources to address complex
storage configurations
10% Present the strengths of the HPE storage portfolio relative to market and
competitive trends Evaluate the storage market and identify the strengths of HPE Storage
Solutions in multi-site and/or multi-vendor environments
Illustrate how HPE Storage solutions provide a differentiated competitive
advantage and business value in multi-site and/or multi-vendor environments
35% Plan and design complex HPE Storage solutions Recognize opportunities and identify customer requirements for multi-site
and/or complex storage solutions
Given a scenario, size multi-site and/or complex storage solutions
Given a scenario, plan and design multi-site and/or complex storage solutions
Given a scenario, develop a proposal with business value statement and bill of
materials
Present multi-site and/or complex solutions to the customer
5% Validate the installation, configuration, and setup of complex HPE Storage
solutions validate data replication and transparent failover features specific to 3PAR
and Nimble
validate HPE integrations and recommended performance tuning (RAs) for specific
hypervisors and applications
Configure an HPE storage solution for a multi-vendor environment
5% Performance-tune, optimize, and upgrade HPE storage solutions Identify and compare the existing solution design to the best-practices
documentation
Recommend performance-tuning optimizations to the storage solution
5% Troubleshooting multi-site or complex HPE Storage solutions Identify system issues and failures in HPE Storage solutions
Create and propose an action plan to resolve the issue/failure in a HPE storage
solution
Recommend preventative measures on HPE storage solutions
5% Manage, monitor, administer, and operate multi-site or complex HPE storage
solutions Manage and administer storage in an HPE Storage solution
Manage and administer data protection (backup and replication) in an HPE Storage
solution
Manage and administer FC and IP storage network in an HPE Storage solution
Develop and manage customer's policy for compliance in an HPE Storage solution
Test and Implement a site failover and recovery plan in response to an outage
Sections/Objectives
Sample questions
Sample questions are provided only as examples of question style, format and
complexity/difficulty. They do not represent all question
types and do not reflect all topic areas. These sample questions do not
represent a practice test.
1. A customer wants to take advantage of ISL Trunking within their B-series
SN6000B switch configuration. They have ordered the
necessary trunking license to allow the forming of trunks in their
configuration. They inform you that they have in-flight encryption enabled.
What do you need to consider for this customer? a. Trunking is disabled by default, it must be enabled before the trunk can
be activated
b. Place the trunking capable switches at the edge of the fabric
c. Trunking license must be installed on the principal switch
d. No more than two ports on one ASIC can be configured with encryption
2. A customer has a multi-vendor storage environment with Oracle and SQL both
running on VMware. They need application consistent online backups using tapes
Which solution should you recommend?
a. Data Protector
b. RMC-V
c. RMC-O
d. RMC-S
3. A customer has recently fallen victim to a ransomware attack against their
file serving environment. What should you recommend to help them protect and recover data from any
future attacks?
a. Configure synchronous array replication
b. Create SAN based snapshots
c. Configure streaming asynchronous array replication
d. Setup a firewall rule to block all traffic on port 445
Answers
This section provides answers to and references for the sample questions.
1. A customer wants to take advantage of ISL Trunking within their B-series
SN6000B switch configuration. They have ordered the
necessary trunking license to allow the forming of trunks in their
configuration. They inform you that they have in-flight encryption enabled.
What do you need to consider for this customer?
a. Trunking is disabled by default, it must be enabled before the trunk can be
activated
b. Place the trunking capable switches at the edge of the fabric
c. Trunking license must be installed on the principal switch
d. No more than two ports on one ASIC can be configured with encryption
2. A customer has a multi-vendor storage environment with Oracle and SQL both
running on VMware.
They need application consistent online backups using tapes
Which solution should you recommend?
a. Data Protector
b. RMC-V
c. RMC-O
d. RMC-S
3. A customer has recently fallen victim to a ransomware attack against their
file serving environment.
What should you recommend to help them protect and recover data from any future
attacks?
Exam Title: Oracle Time and Labor Cloud 2019 Implementation Essentials
Exam Number: 1Z0-1048
Exam Price: Rs.22,584.00 More on exam pricing
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 120 Minutes
Number of Questions: 71
Passing Score: 64%
Validated Against: Oracle Time and Labor Cloud 2019 Certified Implementation
Specialist
Take Recommended Training Courses A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs
and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.
Overview Describe primary Time and Labor business processes
Configure general system settings
Describe how workers and managers use workforce scheduling to plan and manage
leave time, shifts, and schedules
Time Attributes Design a collection of properties that enables different user groups to
report time against different time attribute values
Time Categories, Layout Sets, Time Consumer Sets, and Groups Build a collection of time entry layouts for entering, reviewing, and
approving time
Create groupings of time attributes as categories, and use them to group time
entries for summarizing, validating, and transferring time; and for processing
time rules
Build time consumer sets that specify approval periods, validation rules, and
time transfer rules for each time consumer
Set up group definitions that are used by Time and Labor
Configure mass time card creation and mass time entry
Time Processing and Time Entry Profiles Configure worker time processing profiles that associate rule sets, a time
consumer set, and time card periods to report, validate, approve, and transfer
time
Build worker time entry profiles that associate a layout set and time entry
actions to control access to any time entries
Approvals
Define approval periods for each time consumer
Configure approval groups
Configure time card approval tasks and rules
Set up approval rules to override the normal approval flow of a timecard
Explain Mass submit and approve Timecards processes
Repeating Time Periods Create time period definitions that produce repeating periods for use in
time card entry, approvals, time rules processing, and absence accruals
Integrations with Absence Management, Payroll, and Projects Describe the setup required to validate, approve, and transfer reported time
from Time and Labor to Payroll for payment
Describe how to manage value sets and time card fields to set up Project Time
Entry
Describe time attributes, time card fields, and time entry formats required to
enable workers to report absences
Describe how to set up time collection device integration to reduce
administration and time entry errors
Time Rules
Configure templates that enable the reuse of a formula to define multiple rules
Configure time entry and time calculation rules based on rule templates
Build sets of time entry and time calculation rules that can be assigned to a
group of workers using the worker time processing profile
Describe the fast formulas to include in rules in various rule templates in Time
and Labor
Time Devices
Explain Time Device Setup, Time Device Processing, Time Device Rules, and Time
Entry Rules
Explain Increased Time Management efficiency and Timecard search enhancements
Question: 1 Your customer has implemented Fusion Payroll and defined a set of elements
and CIRs (Calculation
Information Repository) with restricted element eligibility.
How should you restrict the displayed payroll time types to match the payroll
element eligibility?
A. The payroll elements are placed in one multiple-attribute time card field and
the layout set is assigned by using the time entry profile.
B. The payroll elements are placed in one multiple-attribute time card field and
restricted by using the enabled value.
C. The payroll element eligibility definition is automatically used to restrict
the displayed values on the time card.
D. The payroll elements are placed in several multiple-attribute time card
fields and the layout set is assigned by using the time entry profile.
Answer: A
Question: 2 You have 10 different Legislative Data Groups (LDG) defined. Each LDG has a
different set of Payroll
Time Types and Absence Types.
How should you configure a Layout Component to display the proper values in one
single list on the
Time Entry Layout?
A. Create a Multiple Attribute Time Card Field, filtering the list using
Assignment ID.
B. Create a Multiple Attribute Time Card field, filtering the displayed values
based on the LDG Filtering function.
C. Create a Multiple Attribute Time Card Field, filtering the list using Element
Eligibility.
D. Cannot be done in one list. This requires two separate selection lists (Time
Card fields), placed on the Time Entry Layout.
Answer: B
Question: 3 Which is not a predefined approval task and task rule for payroll and
project costing time entry approvals?
A. a Payroll Time Card Approval task that automatically approves the time card
if the total hours for time entries is 40 hours or less.
B. a Project Time Card Approval task that routes time cards that contain time
entries with a reported project, task, and expenditure type to the appropriate
Project Manager
C. a Payroll Time Card Approval task that routes payroll time entries to the
Line Manager if the total hours for a time card exceed 40 hours
D. a Payroll Time Card Approval task that automatically approves the time card
unless it contains absences
Answer: D
Question: 4 What determines the validation and approval of payroll time types for Fusion
Payroll?
A. Use of the delivered payroll time attributes and payroll time card fields.
B. Assignment of the customer-defined Time and Labor – Time Entry Rules (TER).
C. Assignment of a properly defined payroll time consumer set.
D. Assignment of the delivered payroll layout set and time entry options.
CLSSBB Certified Lean Six Sigma Black Belt (CLSSBB)
Black Belts operate under Master Black Belts to apply Six Sigma methodology to
specific projects. They devote 100% of their valued time to Six Sigma. They
primarily focus on Six Sigma project execution and special leadership with
special tasks, whereas Champions and Master Black Belts focus on identifying
projects/functions for Six Sigma. Certified Lean Six Sigma Black Belt (CLSSBB)
is well versed in the Lean Six Sigma Methodology who leads improvement projects,
typically in a full time role. A Certified Lean Six Sigma Black Belt holder
possesses a thorough understanding of all aspects within the phases of
D-M-A-I-C. They understand how to perform and interpret 6 Sigma black belt tools
and how to use standard principles of Lean. The Certified Lean Six Sigma Black
Belt (CLSSBB) is a professional who can explain Six Sigma philosophies and
principles, including supporting systems and tools.
A Black Belt should demonstrate team leadership, understand team dynamics and
assign team member roles and responsibilities. Black Belts have a thorough
understanding of all aspects of the DMAIC model in accordance with Six Sigma
principles. They have basic knowledge of Lean enterprise concepts, are able to
identify non-value-added elements and activities and are able to use specific
tools.
The exam comprises of 150 Multiple Choice Questions out of which the candidate
needs to score 75% (112 out of 150 correct) to pass the exam.
Exams are online and proctored based, using a webcam and a reliable internet
connection exams can be taken anywhere and anytime.
The total duration of the exam is 3 hours (180 Minutes)
No external sources of information may be accessed during the exam held via
ProctorU. Further details of the materials permitted are provided:
Identification Proof
Scientific Calculator will be provided via ProctorU while Exam Session is in
progress.
If a Candidate does not pass the exam in the second (2nd) attempt, the candidate
must wait for a period of at least fourteen (14) calendar days from the date of
their attempt to retake the exam for third (3rd) time or any subsequent time.
The exam can be taken any number of times.
The Certified Lean Six Sigma Black Belt (CLSSBB)™ Certificate is valid for life.
Course Outline 1.1 Section I – Organizational Roadblocks and Lean Management
Organizational roadblocks
Resistance Analysis
Overview of all Continuous Improvement approaches
Overview of Lean
Overview of Six Sigma
Lean Management explained — TAKT Time, Cycle Time, PCE, Lead Time, SWIP, Setup
time, Changeover time
Lean Tools explained — 5S, Kaizen, SMED, Heijunka
1.2 Section II – Pre-define DMAIC
DMAIC versus DFSS
Pre-define Pre-requisites and Qualifications
Project Prioritization Matrix
Introduction to Enterprise Wide view versus LOB view
NPV and IRR
1.2.2 Define
Champion’s transfer of project
Team dynamics and facilitation
Project Charter’s role
SIPOC/COPIS map
VOC/VOB/VOP
CTQ, CTC, CTS
VOC – CTQ Tree
Kano Model
Quality Function Deployment
Baseline performance of Y
Business Metrics for Y
Rolled Throughput Yield (RTY)
Statistical Definition of Six Sigma
1.3 Section III – Measure
Objectives of Measure Phase
Types of Data and Data Distribution models (Normal, Binomial and Poisson
Distribution discussed)
Scales of Data
Measures of Central Tendency
Measures of Dispersion
Measurement Systems Analysis
Variables GAGE RR
Attribute RR
Stability Check — Importance of Stability
Capability Check — Cp, Cpk, Cpkm explained, How to understand Attribute
Capability
Variations, Variability and Capability
Graphical tools to understand Data distribution
Understanding Weibull (2 Parameter, 3 Parameter and Rayleigh) Distribution
Correlating Calculations to Business Measures
Checking Normality of Data (Anderson Darling, Ryan Joiner and Kolmogorov
Smirnov)
1.4 Section IV – Analyze
Objectives of Analyze
Simple Linear Regression
Multiple Linear Regression
Curvilinear Regression
Fishbone Diagram
Pareto Charts
Demarcating Common Causes and Special Causes
Hypothesis Tests (Parametric and Non-Parametric tests)
Statistical Validation
1.5 Section V – Improve
Objectives of Improve
Cost Benefit Analysis
Solutions Prioritization Matrix
Pugh Matrix
Design of Experiments
Introduction to DOE
Basics of DOE
Replication, Randomization and Blocking
Main Effects and Interaction effects
Full factorial experiments
Fractional factorial experiments
Screened Designs
Response Surface Designs
DOE with Regression
DOE with example
1.6 Section VI – Control
Taguchi’s Loss Function
Control Charts (Variable Control Charts and Attribute Control Charts)
Measurement System Re-analysis
Control Plan and Project Storyboard Transfer
Project Closure
Introduction to Total Productive Maintenance
Lean Process Improvement
Lean Process Improvement
Understanding Lean
The Toyota Production System
The Toyota Production System House
The Five Critical Improvement Concepts
Understanding Value with the Kano Model
Types of Waste
Creating a Lean Enterprise
Understanding Lean
The Plan, Do, Study, Act (PDSA) Cycle
Using the R-DMAIC-S Model
Lean Thinking Tools
Kaizen Events
Data Gathering and Mapping
QUESTION: 1 A ___________ is used primarily to track the stability of the average value
of a metric of interest.
A. NP Chart
B. Xbar-R Chart
C. I-MR Chart
D. C Chart
Answer: B
QUESTION: 2 For her injection molding project a Belt needed to track the percentage of
defectives of a particular
sample set so she used a ___________ to display the data?
A. Individual Chart
B. C Chart
C. Xbar Chart
D. P Chart
Answer: D
QUESTION: 3 Which of these graphs demonstrates conditions which would be sufficient to
enable OCAP for the process?
A. Xbar Chart
B. Time Series Chart
C. Neither
D. Both
Answer: A
QUESTION: 4 Control Charts were developed by Dr. Shewhart to track data over time. To
detect Special Cause variation the Control Charts use which of these?
A. Data shift analysis
B. Outlier analysis methods
C. Center Line and Control Limits
D. None of the above
Answer: C
QUESTION: 5 Common and ______________ Cause Variation are the focus of Statistical
Process Control.
A. Uncommon
CLSSBB GAQM
B. Ordinary
C. Special
D. Selective
Answer: C
QUESTION: 6 Special Cause Variation falls into which two categories?
A. Natural & Unnatural
B. Short Term & Long Term
C. Assignable & Pattern
D. Attribute & Discreet
Delivery Methods: Certification
Level: Specialist
Exam: 40 questions
Sample Questions:
Cut Score: 68%
Duration: 90 mins
Languages: English
Description The "SAP Certified Technology Specialist - SAP S/4HANA Conversion and SAP
System Upgrade" certification exam validates that the candidate possesses the
required level of knowledge to perform a technical SAP S/4HANA conversion and an
SAP system upgrade. This certification proves that the candidate has an overall
understanding and the in‐depth technical skills required. Armed with an
understanding of SAP system administration, the candidate can implement this
knowledge practically in SAP projects. The enablement for this exam is being
provided by the course "ADM328 - SAP S/4HANA Conversion and SAP System Upgrade".
It is highly recommended that you have passed the exam C_TADM55_74 or
C_TADM55_75 or C_TADM55A_75 prior to taking this exam.
Notes To ensure success, SAP recommends combining education courses and hands-on
experience to prepare for your certification exam as questions will test your
ability to apply the knowledge you have gained in training.
You are not allowed to use any reference materials during the certification test
(no access to online documentation or to any SAP system).
Topic Areas Please see below the list of topics that may be covered within this
certification and the courses that cover them. Its accuracy does not constitute
a legitimate claim; SAP reserves the right to update the exam content (topics,
items, weighting) at any time.
SAP S/4HANA Conversion Prepare Phase > 12% Describe and perform the actions necessary during the SAP S/4HANA conversion
prepare phase
ADM328 (SAP S/4HANA 1809)
SUM Prepare Part > 12%
SUM Execution Part > 12% Perform the SUM execution part, including DMO
ADM328 (SAP S/4HANA 1809)
Manual Activities for SUM 8% - 12% Describe the necessary manual preparation and follow-on activities for SUM
ADM328 (SAP S/4HANA 1809)
SUM Monitoring and Troubleshooting 8% - 12% Monitor and troubleshoot the SUM procedure
ADM328 (SAP S/4HANA 1809)
Modification Adjustment 8% - 12% Perform the modification adjustment with SPDD and SPAU
ADM328 (SAP S/4HANA 1809)
Downtime 8% - 12%
Describe the factors influencing downtime and techniques to reduce downtime
ADM328 (SAP S/4HANA 1809)
Handling of an SAP System Landscape 8% - 12% Describe the handling of the SAP system landscape during SAP S/4HANA
conversion and SAP system upgrade
ADM328 (SAP S/4HANA 1809)
General Information
Exam Preparation IMPORTANT: All SAP consultant certifications are now available as Cloud
Certifications in the Certification Hub and can be booked with product code
CER006. With CER006 – SAP Certification in the Cloud, you can take up to six
exams attempts of your choice in one year – from wherever and whenever it suits
you! Test dates can be chosen and booked individually.Those of you who prefer to
get certified on-site at an SAP training center instead can still do so.
Official dates for the certification tests are listed on the right.
Each specific certification comes with its own set of preparation tactics. We
define them as "Topic Areas" and they can be found on each exam description. You
can find the number of questions, the duration of the exam, what areas you will
be tested on, and recommended course work and content you can reference.
Certification exams might contain unscored items that are being tested for
upcoming releases of the exam. These unscored items are randomly distributed
across the certification topics and are not counted towards the final score. The
total number of items of an examination as advertised in the Training Shop is
never exceeded when unscored items are used.
Please be aware that the professional- level certification also requires several
years of practical on-the-job experience and addresses real-life scenarios.
For more information refer to our FAQs.
• SAP Global Certification FAQ – Overview
• SAP Global Certification FAQ – Exam Process
• SAP Global Certification FAQ – Post-Exam Process
Safeguarding the Value of Certification SAP Education has worked hard together with the Certification & Enablement
Influence Council to enhance the value of certification and improve the exams.
An increasing number of customers and partners are now looking towards
certification as a reliable benchmark to safeguard their investments.
Unfortunately, the increased demand for certification has brought with it a
growing number of people who to try and attain SAP certification through unfair
means. This ongoing issue has prompted SAP Education to place a new focus on
test security. Please take a look at our post to understand what you can do to
help to protect the credibility of your certification status.
Our Certification Test Security Guidelines will help you as test taker to
understand the testing experience.
Question: 1 During a SUM run you vivant to check if the phase SHADOW_IMPORT_INC is still
running properly.
Where can you find information about this?
There are 2 correct answers to this question.
Response:
A. Check for running batch jobs in the shadow system via Job Overview (SM37)
B. Check for running R3trans processes on the host of the primary application
server
C. Check for running R31oad processes on the host of the primary application
server
D. Check for the latest log files in the SUM directory, subdirectory ABAP,
subdirectory tmp
Answer: B, D
Question: 2 During the configuration of the DMO for SUM, how does the tool behave if
option "Do not compare
table contents" is selected regarding table comparison?
Please choose the correct answer.
Response:
A. It performs a comparison on selected tables using check sum.
B. It performs a comparison on all tables using row counts.
C. It performs a comparison of all tables using check sum.
D. It does NOT perform any table comparison.
Answer: B
Question: 3 You performed a custom code check for an SAP S/4HANA conversion. In which
transactions can you
review the results?
There are 2 correct answers to this question.
Response:
A. SYCM (Simplification Database Content)
B. SAT (Runtime Analysis)
C. ATC (ABAP Test Cockpit)
D. SE80 (Object Navigator)
Answer: C, D
Question: 4 You downloaded content from the SAP note 1000009 ("ASU Toolbox 2008"). Which
transaction needs
to be executed to use that content in the ASU Toolbox?
Please choose the correct answer.
Response:
A. /ASU/UPGRADE (Start ASU Toolbox in Upgrade Mode)
B. /ASU/SSM (ASU Simple Schedule Manager)
C. /ASU/SHOW_NOTE (Show SAP Note via Web-Browser)
D. /ASU/START (Start ASU Toolbox)
Question: 1 A company has an existing English language site for the Canadian market. It
is planning to create a
new site for the US market. While most of the control of the current site can be
reused for the new
site, how would you create the new site in the most efficient manner?
A. Create a live copy from the (ca/en) root to (us/en)
B. Duplicate the site root(ca/en), then move it to the new regional root
C. Copy the site root (ca/en) and paste it in the regional root (us/en)
D. Create a site (us/en) and define the redirect to (ca/en)
Answer: A
Question: 2 An author would like to display an AI-summarized version of an article.
Which method would you recommend to achieve this?
A. Create a variation of a master content fragment
B. Modify a component to display a shortened form of the article
C. Create a variation of an experience fragment
D. Implement a workflow to generate a summarized version
Answer: A
Question: 3 A company plans to develop a set of pages with the same design and
structure. The only difference
between the pages is the content inside the body. What is the best approach to
develop the pages?
A. Create a specific page template for each page with associated components in
each body
B. Create a page template for all pages with a layout container in the body
C. Create a page template and put the rich-text (RTE) in the body
D. Use the out-of-the-box Reference component to allow freedom in context
editing
A Palo Alto Networks Certified Cybersecurity Associate (PCCSA) possesses
knowledge of cutting-edge technology available today to manage the cyber threats
of tomorrow.
Palo Alto Networks Professional Certification Program The Palo Alto Networks Certified Cybersecurity Associate (PCCSA) possesses
knowledge of cutting-edge technology available today to manage the cyber threats
of tomorrow. The PCCSA certification should be pursued by students and
individuals new to cybersecurity to validate up-to-date knowledge on
cyber-threats and cyber-security.
The Palo Alto Networks Certified Network Security Administrator (PCNSA)
recognizes individuals with the knowledge to operate Palo Alto Networks
next-generation firewalls to protect networks from cutting edge cyber threats.
The Palo Alto Networks Certified Network Security Engineer (PCNSE) recognizes
individuals with in-depth knowledge and abilities to design, install, configure,
maintain and troubleshoot the vast majority of implementations based on the Palo
Alto Networks platform. The PCNSE exam should be taken by anyone who wishes to
demonstrate a deep understanding of Palo Alto Networks technologies, including
customers who use Palo Alto Networks products, value-added resellers, pre-sales
system engineers, system integrators, and support staff.
Question: 1 Which type of adversary would commit cybercrimes with the authorization of
their country’s government?
A. state-sponsored
B. hacktivist
C. gray hat
D. white hat
Answer: A
Question: 2 When a company chooses to deploy a branch location with antivirus software,
which risk model are they using to manage risk?
A. limiting
B. assuming
C. trasnferring
D. avoiding
Answer: A
Question: 3 Which option describes a characteristic of a distributed denial-of-service
attack?
A. uses multiple types of malware to corrupt system services
B. uses a single remote host to delete data from multiple target servers
C. uses a single remote host to flood a target network with traffic
D. uses a botnet to flood traffic to a target network
Answer: D
Question: 4 What is a component of a public key infrastructure?
A. Key Distribution Center
B. KDC ticket
C. SSH key
D. certificate authority
Question: 1
(single) What is the correct statement about IP routing?
A. Routing is the concept of the second layer in the OSI model.
B. Any route must include the following three parts: source address, destination
address, and next hop.
C. In the LAN, routing includes the following two parts: IP address and MAC
address.
D. IP routing is the path information that guides IP packet forwarding.
Answer: D
Question: 2 (single) Which is the next generation development prospect of the access
network?
A. Expand the application of PSTN
B. Increase the type of service transmitted on ADSL
C. Light into the copper
D. Increase the ADSL transmission distance and increase the coverage radius
Answer: C
Question: 3 (single) Which of the following does not belong to the communication network
category?
A. Telephone network
B. Internet network
C. Radio and television network
D. State Grid
Answer: D
Question: 4 (single) Among the access technologies of the access network, which of the
following access modes can provide the largest access bandwidth?
Question: 1 The OpenFlow protocol in SDN architecture is led and actively promoted by
the IETF.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 2 In terms of the SDN architecture, the ONF does not recommend carriers to
change the existing network architecture, but the IETF recommends carriers to do
so.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 3 Which of the following descriptions are true about SDN? (Multiple Choice)
A. SDN is OpenFlow.
B. SDN supports forwarding-control separation.
C. SDN provides programmable open interfaces.
D. SDN is short for software-defined networking.
Answer: ACD
Question: 4 Which of the following are true about SDN? (Multiple Choice)
A. In the SDN architecture, the underlying switches need to provide only the
most basic and simple functions.
B. SDN is applicable to cloud computing providers and enterprises facing
substantially increasing workloads.
C. SDN's forwarding-control separation architecture standardizes and simplifies
network devices.
D. SDN cannot implement flexible and centralized control and cloudified
application awareness.
Answer: BCD
Question: 5 In the SDN architecture, which of the following belong to the application
layer? (Multiple Choice)
A. OpenStack
B. Third-party APP platform
C. SNC
D. NetMatrix
