Autonomous Database Technical Overview Describe the architectural components of Autonomous Database (ADB)
Describe how ADB integrates with the Oracle Cloud Platform
Articulate the key features of Autonomous Database
Describe a typical workflow for using ADB
Understand the OCI Infrastructure
Describe how database security is leveraged in ADB
Migration and Data Loading into Autonomous Database Describe the options and considerations for migrating to ADB
Using SQL Developer to test data loading scenarios
Migrate to ADB using Data Pump
Migrate to ADB using Golden Gate
Supporting business users with Data Sync
Load data using DBMS_CLOUD
Monitoring Autonomous Database Monitor ADB performance
Use services in ADB
Provisioning and Connectivity Provision an Autonomous Database service
Find and download database credentials
Connect to an ADB service
Navigate the OCI console
Managing and Maintaining Autonomous Database
Manage users and user privileges in ADB
Start, stop and scale ADB
Use rest APIs to manage ADB
Use the OCI command line to manage ADB
Manage ADB Backups and Restores
Explore ADB using SQL Developer
Understand ADB for Experienced Users
Tools, Reporting and Analytics using Autonomous Data Warehouse (ADW) Describe how to use ADW with 3rd party software
Describe how to use Machine Learning algorithms with ADW
Describe how to build analytic views
Explain how to use Oracle Machine Learning notebooks with ADW
Explain how to use the Oracle Analytics Cloud with ADW
Explain how to use Data Visualization Desktop with ADW
Build visualizations using Data Visualization Desktop and ADW
QUESTION: 1
Which is the correct subset of services offered via OCI-CLI (command line interface) for Autonomous
Database (ABD) via calls made to the OCI API's?
A. Create, Query, Update, List, Start
B. Create, Query, List, Stop, Restore
C. Create, Get, List, Stop, Restore
D. Start, Delete, Update, Query, Stop
Answer: B
QUESTION: 2
Which three tasks by default are taken care of by the Autonomous Database?
A. Database Upgrades
B. Application User Creation
C. Backups
D. Firmware Patching
E. Data Loading
Answer: A,C,E
QUESTION: 3
Which three data dictionary views contain information about analytic view objects?
A. ALL_ANALYTIC_VIEW_PATHS
B. ALL_ANALYTIC_VIEW_DIM_CLASS
C. ALL_ANALYTIC_VIEW_ID_ATTRS
D. ALL_ANALYTIC_VIEW_LVLGRPS
E. ALL_ANALYTIC_VIEW_KEYS
Answer: B,D,E
QUESTION: 4
What are three methods to load data into the Autonomous Database?
A. Transportable Tablespace
B. Oracle Data Pump
C. RMAN Restore
D. Oracle GoldenGate
E. SQL*Loader
Answer: B,D,E
QUESTION: 5
Which of these database features is NOT part of the Autonomous Database?
A. Flashback Database
B. Java in the Database
C. Real Application Clusters (RAC)
D. Online Indexing
Exam Title: Oracle Responsys Marketing Platform 2019 Implementation
Essentials
Exam Number: 1Z0-1032
Exam Price: Rs.22,584.00 More on exam pricing
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 120 Minutes
Number of Questions: 71
Passing Score: 63%
Validated Against: Oracle Responsys Marketing Platform Cloud Service 2019
Certified Implementation Specialist
Take Recommended Training Courses Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):
Additional Preparation and Information A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs
and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.
Responsys Data Model Describe the Responsys Data Model
Create and manage Contact Lists, Supplemental Tables, and Profile Extension
Tables
Create and manage Filters, Segment Groups, and Seed Groups
Integration: Interact Connect Describe the Data Gateway Setup process
Configure Connect jobs to import data
Configure Contact Event Data (CED) exports
Campaigns/Forms Create, manage, and test campaigns
Configure campaign settings in the Campaign Dashboard
Manage Campaign Categories, Link Categories, and Link Tables
Configure personalization using Built-in Functions or Responsys Personalization
Language
Configure dynamic content modules
Create and manage forms
Multi-Channel Campaigns Implement Rapid Retargeter display campaigns
Create Short Message Service (SMS) campaigns
Create Push campaigns
Responsys Personalization Language (RPL)
Develop basic RPL
Develop important RPL directives
Initial Configuration/Deliverability Describe domain branding and domain delegation, and gather initial account
settings
Describe how Responsys manages bounce processing, spam and feedback loops, and
soft bounce suppression
Perform IP Warm Up and IP Ramp Up
Configure global settings, campaign management options, domain suppressions,
soft bounce settings, external tracking, and campaign categories
Implement conversion tracking
Configure subscription management
Creating and Managing Content Create and manage documents
Read, write, and edit HTML code for emails
Apply responsive design techniques to emails
Programs
Design, manage, and publish programs
Analyze and test programs
Integrations Describe how Responsys integrates with technology partners
Describe Responsys API Authentication
Describe Responsys API scalability
QUESTION: 1
What three actions must you take to set up your new IP for deliverability
success with your major ISPs? (Choose three.)
A. Do everything possible to remove lapsed, bounced, or old email addresses to
increase the possibility of getting your emails into the inbox.
B. Set up a backup IP address so you will get through to the inbox even if you
are blocked by an ISP.
C. Automate the daily delivery of Insight Deliverability reports for your
warm-up campaigns, especially the Feedback Loop reports to check on true spam
complaint rates.
D. Ensure that your warm-up audience lists consist of recently opted-in,
opened/clicked within the last few months, or are known brand advocates.
Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION: 2 Which three actions will change the EMAIL_PERMISSION_STATUS_ column for a
profile list contact from opt-in to opt-out? (Choose three.)
A. Recipient deletes a promotional email from the inbox.
B. Use Set Data in a Responsys Program to change the EMAIL_PERMISSION_STATUS_
column in a profile list record from I to O.
C. Recipient selects a Reply-to unsubscribe in a promotional email.
D. Recipient registers a SPAM complaint for an email.
E. Recipient inbox is full, so the promotional email is rejected by the server.
Answer: C,D,E
QUESTION: 3 In every email, your client wants to provide a link so customers can
download their latest menu.
They want to serve this from the Responsys content library, updating the
document periodically.
How can they accomplish this?
A. Upload the document into Manage Hosted Content, then publish. Insert this URL
into every email
document. To update, unpublish the document, upload the current version with the
same name, and publish.
B. Upload the document into the Content Library. From the document pull-down
menu, select Create
Embeddable URL and copy the URL into every email. Upload and overwrite this
document with the
most current version as needed.
C. Your client must host and update the document from their own content server
and provide the
URL to Responsys. In the Responsys email documents, use the ServeURL function to
reference the
document as needed.
D. Upload the document into the Content Library. Right-click the document and
select Copy Link.
Insert this link into every email document. Upload and overwrite this document
as needed.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 4 You are planning an integration of Salesforce.com and Responsys. You
navigate to the Account
Administration screen to configure the access to Salesforce.com, but the
configuration options are not available.
What is the reason for this?
A. You need to work with Salesforce.com technical resources to configure the
gateway to Responsys
from within the Salesforce.com application.
B. You need to create a new user specifically for Responsys from within the
Salesforce.com application.
C. Responsys Customer Support must first enable the Salesforce integration
functionality before the
Account Administrator can configure the access between Salesforce.com and
Responsys.
D. You must first create a new Salesforce Connect job to enable the automated
data feed between
the Salesforce.com and Responsys contacts lists.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 5 While configuring the import of a PET table, you need to match new records
to existing records for the data merge.
Which two profile fields are options to configure the import to match existing
records? (Choose two.)
A. PET_ID_
B. EMAIL_ADDRESS_
C. CUSTOMER_ID_
D. ADDRESS_
Exam Title: Oracle Field Service Cloud 2019 Implementation Essentials
Exam Number: 1Z0-1003
Exam Price: Rs.22,584.00 More on exam pricing
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 120 Minutes
Number of Questions: 60
Passing Score: 67%
Validated Against: Oracle Field Service Cloud 2019 Implementation Specialist
Additional Preparation and Information A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs
and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.
Resources and Resource Types Describe Resource Types and Roles
Configure Resource Types
Configure resources for Routing
Time Windows Describe Time Slots, Service Windows, SLAs, and Delivery Windows
Inventory Types
Describe Inventory Types, consumption and management
Business Rules
Configure Business Rules settings
Work Zones
Describe the concepts of Work Zones
Display Settings
Configure OFSC Core Application display settings
Activity Link Templates
Create an Activity Link Template
OFSC APIs
Explain OFSC API capabilities
Create a Core REST API request
Routing
Describe Run Schedule, Assignment Parameters, and filtering options
Describe routing reoptimization
Configure a Routing Plan
Notification Engine
Describe the various launch conditions
Configure a Message Scenario
Service Requests
Configure a Service Request
User Types
Configure OFSC Core Application Screens
Configure User Types
Activity Types
Describe Activity Type Features
Configure Activity Types
Fields and Custom Properties
Describe the four types of custom properties and native system fields
Create a custom property
Work Skills
Describe the concepts of Work Skills and Work Skill Conditions
Configure a Work Skill and associated Conditions
Resource Calendars
Configure resource calendars
Outbound Integration Channels
Explain the options available within Outbound Integration Channels
Filters
Explain the usage of filters within OFSC
Create a filter
Statistics Parameters
Explain Duration and Travel Statistics and their parameters
Quota, Capacity and Booking
Describe Quota, Capacity and Booking Options
Configure Quota Management for Capacity Areas
Collaboration
Describe Collaboration features and usage
Plug-in Framework
Understand the capabilities of the mobility framework
QUESTION: 1 Which two default attributes serve as stand-alone keys for work zones?
A. Service Code
B. Completion Code
C. Fault code
D. Zip code
E. Travel area
F. City
Answer: D,E
QUESTION: 2 A customer wants to configure the OFSC GUI to show when a resource has not
activated their route
by the exact planned shift start time and send an email to the resource's
supervisor.
Which two options are true regarding how this requirement is supported?
A. Configuring a message scenario using the launch condition "Route is not
activated" will also
enable the Alert Setting "Route has not been started x minutes after the start
time of resource work day".
B. The Alert Setting "Route has not been started x minutes after the start time
of resource work day"
should be configured for 1 minute(s).
C. The Alert Setting "Route has not been started x minutes after the start time
of resource work day"
should be configured for 0 minute(s).
D. The configuration related to email notification must be performed in the
Message Scenarios.
Answer: A,B
QUESTION: 3 A utility company sees several "New Connect" activities being dropped into
the routing bucket during the day.
They want "Meter Read" activities to be removed from the technician's route so
that the "New
Connect" activities can be assigned if the technician qualifies for the activity
They enabled reoptimization in their route plan and created a reoptimization
filter targeting the
"Meter Read" activities.
What additional settings are required in the route plan to meet the desired
behavior?
A. Set the reoptimization goal to "Assign high priority activities". Then set
cost of not assigning an
activity for "Meter Read" on activities in existing routes to "High", whereas
cost of not assigning an
activity for "New Connect" in activities in the routing bucket to "Low".
B. Set the reoptimization goal to "Reduce Overdue". Then set cost of not
assigning an activity for
"Meter Read" on activities in existing routes to "High", whereas cost of not
assigning an activity for
"New Connect" in activities in the routing bucket to "Normal".
C. Set the reoptimization goal to "Assign high priority activities". Then set
cost of not assigning an act
or "Meter Read" on activities in existing routes to "Low", whereas cost of not
assigning an activity for
"New Connect" in activities in the routing bucket to "High".
D. Set the reoptimization goal to "Assign high priority activities". Then set
cost of not assigning an
activity for "Meter Read" on activities in existing routes to "Highest", whereas
cost of not assigning
an / for "New Connect" in activities in the routing bucket to "Normal”.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 4 A technician has been assigned a scheduled activity that he or she needs to
perform later in the day.
Their company has a policy that their technicians perform some advance testing
as an administrative task prior to the activity.
Which option would enable them to account for their time performing these tasks?
A. selecting "Prework" from within the activity In OFSC Mobility
B. adding a new "Prework" custom property to the "Edit/View activity" context in
OFSC Mobility
C. creating a "start-after" link template between the preliminary work and the
scheduled work
D. creating a "start-before" link template between the preliminary work and the
scheduled work
Answer: B
QUESTION: 5 A customer has found that there are some instances where their technicians
have recorded either
exceptionally short (for example, "one-minute-wonders") or long (for example,
they forgot to set the
status to "complete") activity durations.
Given the importance of accurate data in a time-based self-learning system,
which two constraints
are in place and can be modified to ensure that outlier circumstances such as
these do not affect
future activity duration estimations?
A. "Minimum relevant duration time in minutes" and "Maximum relevant duration
time in minutes"
B. "Personalize the estimation of activity duration" and "Initial ratio of
activity duration"
C. "Lower limit for personal ratio to calculate duration" and "Upper limit for
personal ratio to calculate duration"
D. "Minimum relevant travel time in minutes" and "Maximum relevant travel time
in minutes"
You demonstrate a foundational understanding of NetApp® data storage systems
and the products and technologies specifically designed for managing data in
today’s growing hybrid cloud market. You understand technologies in storage and
data management, both on-premise and in a hybrid cloud environment and have an
in-depth knowledge of NetApp products and technologies used in managing data in
the cloud.
NCSA-HC certificates will be granted to those individuals who successfully pass
the NetApp Certified Storage Associate-HC (NS0-146) exam.
NCTA will be granted to those individuals who successfully pass the NetApp
Certified Technology Associate (NS0-002) exam.
To learn more about the NCSA-HC certification, please download the NCSA-HC Data
Sheet or contact:
Recommended Training and Resources: NetApp Certified Storage Associate – Hybrid Cloud curriculum
Practice Exam for NS0-002
Practice Exam for NS0-146
Reference Document (PDF)
Introduction to NetApp Porftolio
Industry Essentials: Cloud Computing
Cloud Volumes ONTAP Fundamentals
Be Prepared to know Cloud Data Services Fundamentals
Be Prepared to know OnCommand Insight Fundamentals
Reference Technical Overview of SaaS Backup for MS Office365
Insight Sessions:
1250-1 Introduction to Data Transport with NetApp Cloud Sync
1232-1 Intelligent Operations Using NetApp Cloud Insights
Industry Essentials: HCI
NetApp HCI Fundamentals
Element Fundamentals
To enroll in NetApp University training, you will need a NetApp Support Site
account.
Take Your Exam The NetApp Certified Storage Associate – Hybrid Cloud (NCSA-HC) exam
includes 60 test questions, with an allotted time of 1-1/2 hours to complete. In
countries where English is not the native language, candidates for whom English
is not their first language will be granted a 30-minute extension to the
allotted examination completion time.
Your results will be available in CertCenter two (2) to five (5) business days
after you complete your exam.
The NetApp Certified Technology Associate (NS0-002) exam includes the following
topics:
Infrastructure Concepts Identify basic infrastructure, governance and virtualization concepts
Configuration and Administration basic knowledge for:
Cloud storage solutions
ONTAP Cloud or Cloud Manager
AltaVault QUESTION: 1
Your existing virtual environment is stored on a NetApp AFF array. You want to
reduce the capacity
utilization on this array while taking advantage of highly scalable cloud
storage.
Which ONTAP feature should you enable to satisfy these requirements?
A. FlexClone
B. StorageGRID
C. FlexCache
D. FabricPool
Answer: A
QUESTION: 2 What are three benefits of using NetApp Cloud Volumes ONTAP? (Choose three.)
A. storage efficiencies
B. serverless compute
C. automatic backup
D. automatic tiering
E. SnapMirror capabilities
Answer: A,C,D
QUESTION: 3 Which statement is true regarding application containerization?
A. Application containerization is designed for massive data sets.
B. Application containerization increases performance of virtual machines.
C. Application containerization requires the Linux operating system.
D. Application containerization provides increased portability.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 4 Which type of service is an Amazon EC2 instance?
A. networking
B. storage
C. compute
D. switch
Answer: C
QUESTION: 5 Which service does Cloud Volumes ONTAP tiering use?
A. Azure Stack
B. Azure Queue Storage
C. Azure Data Lake Storage
D. Azure Blob
Exam description The Aruba Certified ClearPass Associate Exam tests your foundational
knowledge of ClearPass Policy Manager and ClearPass Guest. This exam tests your
skills on how to configure ClearPass as an authentication server for both
corporate users and guests. It also tests your foundational knowledge of device
profiling and posture checks.
Ideal candidate for this exam Ideal candidates for this exam are networking IT professionals with a
minimum of six months experience in deploying modern network solutions for the
enterprise.
Exam contents This exam has 40 questions.
Advice to help you take this exam
Complete the training and review all course materials and documents before you
take the exam.
Exam items are based on expected knowledge acquired from job experience, an
expected level of industry standard knowledge, or other prerequisites (events,
supplemental materials, etc.).
Successful completion of the course alone does not ensure you will pass the
exam.
Read this HPE Exam Preparation Guide and follow its recommendations.
Visit HPE Press for additional reference materials, study guides, practice
tests, and HPE books.
Objectives 33% Overview and Active Directory
36% Guest and Onboard
31% Endpoint Analysis and Posture
QUESTION: 1 Your boss suggests that you configure a guest self-registration page in
ClearPass for the Conference Events SSID Which advantages will this give?
(Select two.)
A. It will allow guest users to create a login account for the web login page.
B. It will stop employees from putting their corporate devices on the event
network.
C. It will allow employees to get their own devices securely connected to the
network.
D. It will allow the Conference center to collect extra information about the
guest.
E. It can be pre-loaded with guest information from the conference registration.
Answer: A,D
QUESTION: 2 Which statements describe subnet scans for static IP device discovery?
(Select two.)
A. To run an On-Demand Subnet Scan, you must first configure a subnet scan in
the profile settings.
B. The On-Demand option provides the ability to trigger a one-time scan in
specified network subnets
C. The On-Demand option provides the ability to scan and profile devices only
with static IP.
D. Only SNMP can be used for subnet scans for subnets configured for DHCP.
E. Subnet scans can be scheduled to execute a scan every 24 hrs for configured
subnets.
Answer: BE
QUESTION: 3 Select three elements that are part of the authorization process. (Select
three.)
A. Send a RADIUS accept to the Access device.
B. Verify client credentials against your account.
C. Determine posture status.
D. Validate the user account attributes.
E. Filter by endpoint device type.
Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION: 4 What is the function of the primary and backup servers when configuring an
authentication source in ClearPass?
A. The primary server and backup servers can be configured for round-robin.
B. The primary server can be from one Active Directory domain: the backup server
can be from another
C. The primary server is always authenticated first then the backup is used if
authentication fails.
D. The primary server is always authenticated first then the backup is used if
that times out.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 5 Which actions are necessary to set up a ClearPass guest captive portal web
login page to execute with no errors? (Select three.)
A. Configure the vendor settings in the Network Access Device to match the web
login page.
B. Install a public issued HTTPS certificate in ClearPass Policy Manager.
C. Install a public issued HTTPS certificate in the Network Access Device.
D. Configure the vendor settings in the Web Login Page to match the Network
Access Device.
E. Install an enterprise issued HTTPS certificate in the Network Access Device.
F. Configure the external web-auth URL on the Network Access Device for HTTP
Take Recommended Training Courses Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):
Oracle Application Development Cloud Services Learning Subscription
Unlimited Cloud Learning Subscription
Additional Preparation and Information A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs
and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.
Our certification exams are revised regularly to align with training and product
release updates. Information about exam revisions and new topics are found on
this page under 'Validated Statement' and within the exam topics below.
Certifications reflect validated skills for the year and product release version
date of achievement. If you are preparing for this exam, we recommend you check
these topics periodically to ensure your exam prep covers any new topics that
may be added based on regular exam revision.
Getting Started with Oracle Cloud Application Integration Describe the key features & components of Application Integration
Explain Application Integration concepts
Describe Application Integration Architecture
Explain WSDL, XML/SOAP, WS, and REST/JSON functionality
Working with Service-Oriented Architecture Cloud Service (SOACS) Describe Concepts of Service orchestration, Adapters, Routing, and Security
Policy
Manage Events processing
Explain Enterprise Service Bus
Describe Mediatiors
Manage ESS - Enterprise Scheduler Services
Perform Administration and Deployment
Describe the concepts of SOA adapters and Cloud Adapters for SOA Cloud
Perform actions on user interfaces of Oracle SOA Cloud and manage the life cycle
of SOA Cloud instances
Build and deploy composite applications to Oracle SOA Cloud
Understand Oracle Managed File Transfer on OCI
Process Cloud Service
Explain how to develop business processes
Create Human Tasks and Web Forms
Manage Application Data
Create Decisions
Create Business Rules
Integrate with Applications and Services
Working with application integration (Oracle Integration Cloud - OIC) Explain how to configure OIC Environment, perform ICS administration tasks,
and manage security certificates
Create connections (to external systems)
Create Integrations/Orchestrations
Map Data (and Import mappings from Jdeveloper)
Create Lookups and Packages
Monitor/Manage Integrations (to include importing Prebuilt Integrations)
Explain On-Prem agents / configuration (to include: Scheduling, Configuring
Adapter Endpoints, debug, On Prem integration, and deploying/publishing an
Integration to API Platform Cloud Service.)
Describe orchestration view options and new OIC capabilities
Explore Oracle Integration Cloud best practices
Working with Integration API Platform Cloud Service Explain how to Stand up a Service Instance (fulfill prerequisites, create
and access service instances, follow best practices)
Manage Users (user management concepts and personas, create users and groups,
assign roles to users and groups)
Manage Gateways (install and configure gateway nodes, issue gateway grants,
configure OAuth 2.0 Providers)
Manage APIs (implement an API, deploy to a gateway, add documentation, publish
to the Developer Portal, issue API grants, apply policies)
Manage Services and Service Accounts
Use the Developer Portal (discover and register to APIs)
QUESTION: 1 What Mapper function can you use to get the lookup value in Mapping Builder?
A. GetLookupValue
B. FindLookupValue
C. LookupValue
D. SearchLookupValue
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION: 2 You provision an Oracle SOA Cloud Service instance and specify a compute
shape so that the JVM
heap size for WebLogic Serve, and Load Balancer processes are determined
automatically.
Which statement is correct after provisioning the instance in this scenario?
A. You can change the heap size to a maximum of 32GB.
B. You can change the heap size by logging a Oracle Cloud Support Service
Request.
C. You can change the heap size by using the Weblogic Server Administration
Console.
D. You cannot change the heap size once the Service Instance is provisioned.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION: 3 What policy is required to be in an API if that API is to be used under a
Plan?
A. Application Rate Limiting
B. Basic Auth
C. Key Validation
D. Interface Filtering
Answer: C
QUESTION: 4 Which two statements are true about implementing an API-First strategy?
A. The API is to be developed first before any UI or new business logic are
created.
B. It generally is assumed that SOAP/WSDL are the key specifications for
defining the API.
C. The code to execute business logic needs to exist and be exposed as an API
first before you build a strategy around it.
D. You define the API definition/contract first before any work on its
implementation or any applications that use it, allowing to work in parallel.
Exam Title: Oracle Financials Cloud: Receivables 2019 Implementation
Essentials
Exam Number: 1Z0-1056
Exam Price: Rs.22,584.00 More on exam pricing
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 120 Minutes
Number of Questions: 74
Passing Score: 64%
Validated Against: This exam has been validated against 19B. (Previous version
of this exam was validated against 18D in 2018)
Take Recommended Training Courses Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):
Additional Preparation and Information A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs
and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.
Reporting Explain how to design and use various reporting tools
Explain Oracle Transactional Business Intelligence (OTBI)
Use Business Intelligence Publisher (BIP) Reports
Use the Receivables to Ledger Reconciliation Report
Process intercompany reconciliations
Billing Process billing transactions
Describe invoice print and presentment
Manage revenue
Analyze receivables information using the Billing Work Area
Calculate Transactional Tax
Create and process bills Receivable
Receipt Management Deploy receipt processing
Manage customer refunds
Explain key uses of the Accounts Receivables Work Area
Process bills Receivable Remittances
Receivables
Manage customers in Receivables
Manage Reference Data Sets
Import customer data
Create write offs, adjustments, late charges and chargebacks
Manage Accounting Configuration
Configure Subledger Accounting
Collections Deploy a Delinquency process
Explain the process for customer correspondence
Manage dispute handling
Explain the key functionality of the Collection Work Area
Explain Collection Preferences
Configure and Process a Collections Stratagy
Bill Management
Explain the self-service application for customers.
QUESTION: 1
Your customer has three sites defined in the system, site 1, site 2, and site 3.
All sites have their own
billing strategy defined and Balance Forward Billing is enabled for site 1 and
Site 2 at the account level.
How will bills be generated?
A. Sites 1, 2, and 3 activities will be included in a single bill.
B. Sites 2 and 3 activities will be included in a single bill.
C. Sites 1 and 2 activities will be included in a single bill.
D. Sites 1 and 3 activities will be included in a single bill.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 2 You have created two transactions with a 30-day payment term. The first
transaction is on January
29, 2015 and the second transaction is on January 31, 2015. The invoice date is
the same as the
system date. Both transactions are assigned an unsigned receipt method that has
the lead days set to
60, number of bills receivable rule set to one per customer, and the bills
receivable maturity date rule set to latest.
Which statement is true when the create bills receivable batch is processed for
a customer on January 31, 2015?
A. A Bills Receivable is created with the issue date as January 31, 2015 and the
maturity date as March 2, 2015.
B. A Bills Receivable is created with the issue date as January 31, 2015 and the
maturity date as February 28, 2015.
C. A Bills Receivable is created with the issue date as January 31, 2015 and the
maturity date as March 30, 2015.
D. Two Bills Receivable transactions are created with maturity dates as March
30, 2015 and April 1, 2015.
E. Two Bills Receivable transactions are created with the issue dates as January
29, 2015 and January 31, 2015.
F. Two Bills Receivable transactions are created with the issue date and
accounting date as January 29, 2015 and January 31, 2015, respectively.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 3 You are not able to initiate a bankruptcy request at the customer site level
on behalf of a customer.
Which two conditions are failing? (Choose two.)
A. Preferences must be enabled and Enable Bankruptcy must be set to Yes for the
customer.
B. The Collections Administrator creates a bankruptcy request in the Customer
Relationship Management (CRM) application and a collector should have the
Collection Manager and Customer Profile Administrator roles assigned.
C. Preferences must be enabled and Enable Bankruptcy must be set to Yes in
Manage Collections Preferences in the Functional Setup Manager for Advanced
Collections.
D. The Collections Manager creates a bankruptcy request in the Customer
Relationship Management (CRM) application and a collector should be configured
as a resource.
E. Bankruptcy must be applied at the customer level, which includes all
transactions at the customer, account, and Site levels.
F. The customer does not have the default strategy and default collector
assigned at the customer account and site level.
Answer: B,C
QUESTION: 4 Identify three activities that you can perform from the Collections
Dashboard. (Choose three.)
A. Verify Customer Payments.
B. Assign a Collector to a delinquent customer.
C. View the Total Amount Due for delinquent customers.
D. Record an activity to create a task or tasks to follow up on a delinquent
customer.
E. Update the work status of a work item for a delinquent customer.
Exam Title: Oracle Revenue Management Cloud Service 2019 Implementation
Essentials
Exam Number: 1Z0-1059
Exam Price: Rs.22,584.00 More on exam pricing
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 105 Minutes
Number of Questions: 60
Passing Score: 64%
Validated Against: Oracle Revenue Management Cloud Service 2019 Certified
Implementation Specialist
A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs
and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.
Revenue Management Overview Explain Revenue Principles (including new revenue recognition guidance under
ASC 606 and IFRS 15)
Explain Revenue Management Integration Requirements
Standalone Selling Prices Setup Revenue Management and configure standalone pricing
Revenue Management Reporting Explain how to create OTBI reporting objects
Explain delivered reports uses and processes
Revenue Management Setup and Configuration Configure Revenue Management Cloud Services
About Pegasystems Pegasystems Inc. is the leader in software for customer engagement and
operational excellence. Pega’s adaptive, cloud-architected software – built on
its unified Pega® Platform – empowers people to rapidly deploy, and easily
extend and change applications to meet strategic business needs. Over its
30-year history, Pega has delivered award-winning capabilities in CRM and BPM,
powered by advanced artificial intelligence and robotic automation, to help the
world’s leading brands achieve breakthrough business results. For more
information on Pegasystems (NASDAQ: PEGA) visit www.pega.com.
Certification Benefits
Why should I become a Pegasystems certified professional?
Certification demonstrates to your customers, partners, and colleagues that you
have acquired the knowledge and skills required to be an effective contributor
to the design and development of Pega applications.
Certification Process
How do I get certified?
Determine your Pega career path. Access Pega Academy’s list of career and certification paths, including
certification-related courses, prerequisites and exam information on Pega
Academy’s Certification Paths page.
Review the full list of exams in the Pega Academy Learning Library or on our
Pearson VUE page.
Take the applicable course(s) for your path through Pega Academy.
Self-study and instructor-led courses are available for each certification path.
For more information on courses, visit our Learning Library.
Create a Pega account to enroll in and access courses.
Prepare for and take a certification exam.
Prepare for the exam by reviewing the course quizzes and assessments and
completing the exercises in the course until you truly understand the answers
and decisions being made. Some Pega exams have Practice exams available in Pega
Academy.
Review exam information such as the exam cost, passing score, number of
questions, and test topics that are included on the exam. Note that, if
applicable, tax may applied to the exam cost when you register to take the exam.
Create a Pearson VUE account if you do not already have one and register for the
exam through the Pearson VUE site. There are two exam delivery options: Take an
exam at a test center, or take an exam via Online Proctored delivery (e.g., in a
quiet, uninterrupted room in your home or office, proctored via webcam).
View and download your Pega certificate. After you pass an exam, within approximately 1-3 business days you will
receive an email notification from Pega Certification with instructions for how
to view and download your certificate from your Pega Academy transcript.
Verify your information on Pega Academy’s Verify Certification search page.
Search either by the exact name or the exact email address used in your Pearson
VUE account. QUESTION 1 You are creating a report that lists all open Personal Injury cases for an
Auto Claim case.
What three options do you use to configure the join for this report? (Choose
three.)
A. Specify the join type to include all rows in the Personal Injury class
B. Specify a join for the Auto Claim class
C. Specify a join for the Personal Injury class
D. Specify the join type to only include matching rows
E. Create the report in the Work- class
F. Create the report in the Auto Claims class
Answer: C,DF
QUESTION 2 What two actions must you perform to create a class join in a report
definition? (Choose two.)
A. Select the type of match for key values
B. Add an association rule to match key values
C. Create a prefix for the joined class
D. Add a parameter for each property in the class you want to join
Answer: C,D
QUESTION 3 An agent runs every 300 seconds. You have been asked to update the agent so
that it runs every Friday at 12:00 A.M.
How do you modify the agent schedule to meet this requirement?
A. Change the Periodic pattern to Recurring. Open the Parameters dialog and
update the schedule
B. Keep the Periodic pattern. In the Parameters dialog, update the schedule
C. Change the Recurring pattern to Periodic and enter the Interval value
D. Keep the Recurring pattern and update the Interval value
Answer: C
QUESTION 4 You are troubleshooting a performance issue with a user interaction that
exceeds the maximum time of five
seconds. The elapsed time shown in the performance report indicates a total of
two seconds.
Which tool do you use to determine what is adding the additional three seconds
to the performance measure?
A. Performance Profiler
B. Database Trace
C. System Management Application
D. Log Analyzer
Answer: A
QUESTION 5 In which two situations do you use the PegaRULES Log Analyzer to analyze
application performance? (Choose two.)
A. After the application is deployed to a production system
B. Before migrating an application to a testing system
C. During User Acceptance Testing
D. Throughout the application development life cycle
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QUESTION: 1
Which customers might be interested in an HP 4K UHD display? (Select two.)
A. film editors who need consistent color accuracy
B. high school biology students
C. business power users
D. architects creating life-like renderings of planned buildings
E. software developers working with long lines of code
Answer: A,C,E
QUESTION: 2
Why is a Z mobile solution the correct solution for a photographer? (Select
two.)
A. It offers intuitive interaction using pen and touch input.
B. It comes with the Solidwork ISV certification, which is required by
photographers.
C. It delivers the filexibility to edit anywhere, without compromising full
performance.
D. It looks nice and gives a prestigious appearance needed to attract new
clients.
E. Its performance meets the 3D requirements.
Answer: D,E
QUESTION: 3
Which use cases apply to VR for primary education segment?
A. concept visualization, experimentation, computer programming, history lessons
B. social context, field trips, experimentation, concept visualization
C. dissections, cultural lessons, space exploration, computer programming
D. game development, social context, experimentation, anatomy
Answer: A
QUESTION: 4 Which statement is incorrect?
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B. A multi-core processor allows users to process multiple commands or work
simultaneously.
C. Non-ECC memory corrects most common types of internal data corruption.
D. Professional GPUs accelerate graphics with a boost of processing power to
accompany the CPU.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 5 Which product is correct to recommend to a professional who needs a
performance and precision inking solution that tackles editing, color grading,
and retouching on the go?
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A. Maybe it will work.
B. Yes, but performance will not be optimized.
C. Yes, and the performance will be the same.
D. No, it will not work.
Answer: D
Question: 2
Who are HP's healthcare VR solutions partners?
A. Periopsim, DiSTI, Enduvo, Surgical Theater
B. Periopsim, PixoVR, Enduvo, Surgical Theater
C. Firsthand Technology, DiSTI, Enduvo, PixoVR
D. Periopsim, Surgical Theater, Firsthand Technology, Enduvo
Answer: C
Question: 3 How does VR help the AEC/PD with development workflows? (Select three.)
A. move from 2D to 3D
B. better match customers to designs
C. achieve better spatial awareness
D. design and develop in real-time
E. create more detailed designs
Answer: ACD
Question: 4 Which Z customers typically work most of the time, if not constantly, at
their desks? (Select two.)
A. engineering students
B. oil and gas project managers
C. freelance graphic designers
D. finance traders
E. film editors
What is an Incident Handler?
Incident handler is a term used to describe the activities of an organization to
identify, analyze, and correct hazards to prevent a future reoccurrence. These
incidents within a structured organization are normally dealt with by a either
an Incident Response Team (IRT), or an Incident Management Team (IMT). These
teams are often either designated beforehand, or during the event and are placed
in control of the organization while the incident is dealt with, in order to
retain business processes.
Become a Certified Incident Handler
The EC-Council Certified Incident Handler certification is designed to provide
the fundamental skills to handle and respond to computer security incidents in
an information system.
A Certified Incident Handler is a skilled professional who is able to handle
various types of incidents, risk assessment methodologies, and various laws and
policies related to incident handling. A certified Incident Handler will be able
to create incident handling and response policies and deal with various types of
computer security incidents such as network security incidents, malicious code
incidents, and insider attack threats.
The ECIH certification will provide professionals with greater industry
acceptance as the seasoned incident handler.
Certification Target Audience
This course will significantly benefit incident handlers, risk assessment
administrators, penetration testers, cyber forensic investigators, venerability
assessment auditors, system administrators, system engineers, firewall
administrators, network managers, IT managers, IT professionals, and anyone who
is interested in incident handling and response.
Exam Information
ECIH (Prefix 212-89) exam is available at the ECC Exam Center.
EC-Council reserves the right to revoke the certification status of candidates
that do not comply with all EC-Council examination policies found here.
ECIH Exam Details
Duration 3 Hours
Questions 100
Clause: Age Requirements and Policies Concerning Minors
The age requirement for attending the training or attempting the exam is
restricted to any candidate that is at least 18 years old.
If the candidate is under the age of 18, they are not eligible to attend the
official training or eligible to attempt the certification exam unless they
provide the accredited training center/EC-Council a written consent of their
parent/legal guardian and a supporting letter from their institution of higher
learning. Only applicants from nationally accredited institution of higher
learning shall be considered.
Disclaimer: EC-Council reserves the right to impose additional restriction to
comply with the policy. Failure to act in accordance with this clause shall
render the authorized training center in violation of their agreement with
EC-Council. EC-Council reserves the right to revoke the certification of any
person in breach of this requirement.
Incidents Occurred in a Cloud Environment
• Cloud Computing Threats
• Security in Cloud Computing
• Eradication
• Recovery in Cloud
Question: 1
Which of the following terms may be defined as “a measure of possible inability
to achieve a goal,
objective, or target within a defined security, cost plan and technical
limitations that adversely
affects the organization’s operation and revenues?
A. Risk
B. Vulnerability
C. Threat
D. Incident Response
Answer: A
Question: 2
A distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack is a more common type of DoS
Attack, where a single
system is targeted by a large number of infected machines over the Internet. In
a DDoS attack,
attackers first infect multiple systems which are known as:
A. Trojans
B. Zombies
C. Spyware
D. Worms
Answer: B
Question: 3 The goal of incident response is to handle the incident in a way that
minimizes damage and reduces
recovery time and cost. Which of the following does NOT constitute a goal of
incident response?
A. Dealing with human resources department and various employee conflict
behaviors.
B. Using information gathered during incident handling to prepare for handling
future incidents in a better way and to provide stronger protection for systems
and data.
C. Helping personal to recover quickly and efficiently from security incidents,
minimizing loss or theft and disruption of services.
D. Dealing properly with legal issues that may arise during incidents.
Answer: A
Question: 4
An organization faced an information security incident where a disgruntled
employee passed
sensitive access control information to a competitor. The organization’s
incident response manager,
upon investigation, found that the incident must be handled within a few hours
on the same day to
maintain business continuity and market competitiveness. How would you
categorize such
information security incident?
A. High level incident
B. Middle level incident
C. Ultra-High level incident
D. Low level incident
Answer: A
Question: 5 Business continuity is defined as the ability of an organization to continue
to function even after a
disastrous event, accomplished through the deployment of redundant hardware and
software, the
use of fault tolerant systems, as well as a solid backup and recovery strategy.
Identify the plan which
is mandatory part of a business continuity plan?
A. Forensics Procedure Plan
B. Business Recovery Plan
C. Sales and Marketing plan
D. New business strategy plan
Answer: B
Question: 6 The flow chart gives a view of different roles played by the different
personnel of CSIRT. Identify the
incident response personnel denoted by A, B, C, D, E, F and G.
A. A-Incident Analyst, B- Incident Coordinator, C- Public Relations,
D-Administrator, E- Human
Resource, F-Constituency, G-Incident Manager
B. A- Incident Coordinator, B-Incident Analyst, C- Public Relations,
D-Administrator, E- Human
Resource, F-Constituency, G-Incident Manager
C. A- Incident Coordinator, B- Constituency, C-Administrator, D-Incident
Manager, E- Human
Resource, F-Incident Analyst, G-Public relations
D. A- Incident Manager, B-Incident Analyst, C- Public Relations,
D-Administrator, E- Human Resource,
F-Constituency, G-Incident Coordinator
Answer: C
Question: 7
Which of the following is an appropriate flow of the incident recovery steps?
A. System Operation-System Restoration-System Validation-System Monitoring
B. System Validation-System Operation-System Restoration-System Monitoring
C. System Restoration-System Monitoring-System Validation-System Operations
D. System Restoration-System Validation-System Operations-System Monitoring
Answer: D
Question: 8
A computer Risk Policy is a set of ideas to be implemented to overcome the risk
associated with
computer security incidents. Identify the procedure that is NOT part of the
computer risk policy?
A. Procedure to identify security funds to hedge risk
B. Procedure to monitor the efficiency of security controls
C. Procedure for the ongoing training of employees authorized to access the
system
D. Provisions for continuing support if there is an interruption in the system
or if the system crashes
Answer: C
Question: 9
Identify the network security incident where intended authorized users are
prevented from using
system, network, or applications by flooding the network with high volume of
traffic that consumes
all existing network resources.
A. URL Manipulation
B. XSS Attack
C. SQL Injection
D. Denial of Service Attack
Answer: D
Question: 10
Incident handling and response steps help you to detect, identify, respond and
manage an incident.
Which of the following steps focus on limiting the scope and extent of an
incident?
A. Eradication
B. Containment
C. Identification
D. Data collection
