Tuesday 31 October 2017

SY0-501 CompTIA Security+ (501)

Exam Details
Exam Codes SY0-401 SY0-501
Launch Date May 1, 2014 October ​4, 2017

Exam Description The CompTIA Security+ exam will certify the successful candidate has the knowledge and skills required to install and configure systems to secure applications, networks, and devices; perform threat analysis and respond with appropriate mitigation techniques; participate in risk mitigation activities; and operate with an awareness of applicable policies, laws, and regulations. The successful candidate will perform these tasks to support the principles of confidentiality, integrity, and availability.

Number of Questions Maximum of 90 questions
Type of Questions Multiple choice and performance-based
Length of Test 90 minutes
​Passing Score 750 (on a scale of 100-900)
Recommended Experience CompTIA Network+ and two years of experience in IT administration with a security focus
Languages English, Japanese, Portuguese and Simplified Chinese. English (Japanese, Portuguese and Simplified Chinese estimated Q2 2018)

Retirement
English retirement: July 31, 2018;
Japanese, Portuguese and Simplified Chinese: December 15, 2018
Usually three years after launch
CompTIA Security+ is the certification globally trusted to validate foundational, vendor-neutral IT security knowledge and skills. As a benchmark for best practices in IT security, this certification covers the essential principles for network security and risk management – making it an important stepping stone of an IT security career.

Jobs that use Security+
Security Specialist/Administrator
Security ​Consultant
Security or ​Systems ​Administrator
Network ​Administrator

Companies that use CompTIA Security+ include:
Apple
Dell
HP
IBM
Intel
U.S. Department of Defense

4 Steps to a Cybersecurity Career
Want more CompTIA Security+ information?

Overview
IT security is paramount to organizations as cloud computing and mobile devices have changed the way we do business. With the massive amounts of data transmitted and stored on networks throughout the world, it’s essential to have effective security practices in place. That’s where CompTIA Security+ comes in. Get the Security+ certification to show that you have the skills to secure a network and deter hackers and you’re ready for the job.

Security+ is government approved
CompTIA Security+ meets the ISO 17024 standard and is approved by U.S. Department of Defense to fulfill Directive 8570.01-M requirements. It is compliant with government regulations under the Federal Information Security Management Act (FISMA).

Security+ is globally recognized
CompTIA Security+ is a globally recognized credential with certified professionals working in over 147 countries throughout the world.

Security+ provides substantial earnings potential
According to the Bureau of Labor Statistics, Security Specialists, Administrators and Managers earn over $86,000 per year.

Security+ is industry supported
Security+ is developed and maintained by leading IT experts. Content for the exams stems from a combination of industry-wide survey feedback and contributions from our team of subject matter experts. Learn more about the people behind the CompTIA Security+ Advisory Committee.

Certkingdom.com is CompTIA’s intelligent online learning tool to help you learn for your Security+ exam. It can verify what you already know and fill in knowledge where you need it. It’s a great addition to your learning prep and will be your guide on your path to master the Security+ curriculum.

Training Materials
There’s a wealth of training materials available that match your learning needs and learning style. Whether you are studying on your own, or in a classroom environment, we recommend CompTIA Authorized Quality Curriculum (CAQC) training materials that will help you get ready for your certification exam and pass the test.

For all training options, visit our training overview.

Instructor-Led Training
Instructor-led training provides a comfortable teaching environment with instructors that are familiar with the certification process and can help you master your certification exam. Find your instructor now.

Ready for the Test?
When you’ve completed your training and you know you can take your certification exam with confidence, head over to the CompTIA Marketplace and purchase your exam voucher that you will need to sign up for the test.

Once you’ve purchased your voucher, you can find a testing location and schedule your test.

Renewal
Keep your certification up to date with CompTIA’s Continuing Education (CE) program. It’s designed to be a continued validation of your expertise and a tool to expand your skillset. It’s also the ace up your sleeve when you’re ready to take the next step in your career.

Get the most out of your certification
Information technology is an incredibly dynamic field, creating new opportunities and challenges every day. Participating in our Continuing Education program will enable you to stay current with new and evolving technologies and remain a sought-after IT and security expert.

The CompTIA Continuing Education program
Your CompTIA Security+ certification is good for three years from the day of your exam. The CE program allows you to extend your certification in three-year intervals through activities and training that relate to the content of your certification. Like Security+ itself, CompTIA Security+ ce also carries globally-recognized ISO/ANSI accreditation status.

It’s easy to renew
You can participate in a number of activities and training programs, including higher certifications, to renew your CompTIA Security+ certification. Collect at least 50 Continuing Education Units (CEUs) in three years, upload them to your certification account, and Security+ will automatically renew.


QUESTION 1
A security analyst wishes to increase the security of an FTP server. Currently, all trails to the FTP server is unencrypted. Users connecting to the FTP server use a variety of modem FTP client software. The security analyst wants to keep the same port and protocol, while also still allowing unencrypted connections. Which of the following would BEST accomplish these goals?

A. Require the SFTP protocol to connect to the file server.
B. Use implicit TLS on the FTP server.
C. Use explicit FTPS for the connections.
D. Use SSH tunneling to encrypt the FTP traffic.

Answer: B


QUESTION 2
A company has three divisions, each with its own networks and services. The company decides to make its secure web portal accessible to all employees utilizing their existing usernames and passwords, The security administrator has elected to use SAML to support authentication. In this scenario, which of the following will occur when users try to authenticate to the portal? (Select TWO)

A. B. The portal will function as an identity provider and issue an authentication assertion
B. C. The portal will request an authentication ticket from each network that is transitively trusted
C. D. The back-end networks will function as an identity provider and issue an authentication assertion
D. The back-end networks will request authentication tickets from the portal, which will act as the third-party service provider authentication store
E. F. The back-end networks will verify the assertion token issued by the portal functioning as the identity provider

Answer: C


QUESTION 3
Which of the following would a security specialist be able to determine upon examination of a server's certificate?

A. CA public key
B. Server private key
C. CSR
D. OID

Answer: B

Saturday 28 October 2017

C8060-220 IBM Watson Customer Engagement: Watson Supply Chain

Number of questions: 60
Number of questions to pass: 36
Time allowed: 120 mins

This multiple-choice test contains questions requiring single and multiple answers. For multiple-answer questions, you need to choose all required options to get the answer correct. You will be advised how many options make up the correct answer.
This test is designed to provide diagnostic feedback on the Examination Score Report, correlating back to the test objectives, informing the test taker how he or she did on each section of the test. As a result, to maintain the integrity of each test, questions and answers are not distributed.

The test contains five sections totalling 60 multiple-choice questions. The percentages after each section title reflect the approximate distribution of the total question set across the sections.
Approximately 40% of the test questions are either platform-agnostics, or applicable to both UNIX and Windows platforms. This exam does contain questions that are platform-specific. To help you prepare, please note the following:
(1)Questions in this objective cover some z/OS content
(2)Questions in this objective cover only UNIX content
(3)Questions in this objective cover only Windows content

Section 1 - Architecture and Planning 17%
Understand the product functionalities and benefits of using Sterling Connect:Direct.
Describe basic architecture of Sterling Connect:Direct and its components.(1)
Identify environment components that interact with Connect:Direct (e.g. load balancers, firewalls, database for Connect:Direct on Microsoft Windows).(2)
Identify system requirements using worksheets.(3)
Explain the different methods used by Sterling Connect:Direct to store configurations on each platform.
Apply TCP/IP concepts.(1)
Solve a situation that has high availability requirements.

Section 2 - Installation and Configuration 25%
Apply installation procedure.(2)
Configure initialization parameters.
Modify configuration files (e.g. API, functional authorities, translation tables).(2)
Configure remote nodes in the Network Map.
Configure local and remote user and proxy authentication.(2)
Verify installations.(2)
Deploy patches for maintenance.(2)
Identify Sterling Connect:Direct File Agent usage.
Perform silent installs and mass rollouts.(3)
Explain the use of checkpointing.
Explain the use of cyclic redundancy check (CRC).
Implement clustering or high availability.

Section 3 - Deployment Operations (Process Language Scripting) 17%
Describe different methodologies to write processes (e.g. requestor, browser, text editor).(1)
Explain Process Language statements and logic flow.(2)
Solve a situation using code pages.
List different ways to submit processes.
Understand the structure of SYSOPTS on different platforms.(1)
Use binary and text transfers.(1)
Solve a situation of moving data between disparate platforms.(1)
Explain the use of Sterling Connect:Direct File Agent for automation.(1)

Section 4 - Administration (Monitoring, Maintenance and Tuning) 21%
Use Connect:Direct Requestor.(3)
Use Command Line Interface (CLI).
Use ISPF interface (IUI). (for z/OS)(1)
Determine the process completion.
Utilize and maintain statistics files or databases.(2)
Understand Sterling Connect:Direct utilities.(1)
Determine trace options.
Manage and control Sterling Connect:Direct process queues.(2)
Identify tuning requirements.
Identify and apply the appropriate software patches.(3)

Section 5 - Security 20%
Explain local authentication and user roles (e.g. admin versus general user).
Explain the different methods of remote user authentication (e.g. password, RACF, local versus proxy, snodeid, security exit).(1)
Understand the process to create, request and validate x.509 certificates.
Implement the Sterling Connect:Direct Secure STS protocol.
Use different methods for maintaining security on Sterling Connect:Direct Secure (e.g. spadmin, SPCLI, Sterling Control Center).(2)
Troubleshoot x.509 certificate issues (e.g. Sterling Connect:Direct traces).
Implement Sterling External Authentication Server for Connect:Direct.(3)
Implement FIPS option.

PartnerWorld Code: 15003801
Replaces PW Code: Not Applicable

Status: Live
This intermediate level certification is intended for administrators and implementers who are responsible for configuring, troubleshooting and deploying IBM Sterling Connect:Direct with focus on the Microsoft Windows 4.6 and UNIX 4.1 platforms. Some basic understanding of the z/OS 5.1 platform is required.

These technical professionals are also required to have conceptual understanding of the Microsoft Windows, UNIX, z/OS Operating Systems.

An administrator or implementer who passes this exam is able to install and configure IBM Sterling Connect:Direct, and provide:

knowledge of the Sterling Connect:Direct components that interact with the user interface that allows submission, execution and monitoring of Sterling Connect:Direct.
a comprehensive set of managed file transfer capabilities to facilitate data growth, use of automation, reduce security risk, and improve IT and business efficiency.
an understanding of secure connections between trading partners with customers, suppliers and business partners.
visibility and tracking of business data with customers, suppliers and business partners.
visibility for status of sent and received business transactions.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills
Before preparing for this certification, the following knowledge and skills are recommended and assumed:

conceptual understanding of operating systems
basic understanding of firewalls, load balancers and high availability (clustering)
basic understanding of network connectivity
basic understanding security, certificates and encryption

In preparing for this certification, the following IBM course(s) are recommended to further improve your skills:
6C02G: IBM Sterling Connect Direct for Unix V4.2.0
6C03G: IBM Sterling Connect Direct for Windows V4.7 Fundamentals


QUESTION: 1
Which component is invoked to stop Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX?

A. Security Exit
B. User Manager
C. Session Manager
D. Process Manager

Answer: D

QUESTION: 2
In Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows, which parameter is required when configuring a remote node using Advanced
Program to Program Communication (APPC)?

A. Partner LU Name
B. Alternate Comminfo
C. Host Name/IP Address
D. UDT communication path name

Answer: A

QUESTION: 3
In Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX, in which path is the file ndmproc located?

A. ndm/|ib/
B.r1dm/blr1/
C. ndm/cfg/cIiapi/
D.r1dm/cfg/cd_r1ode/

Answer: B

QUESTION: 4
In Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX, an administrator is setting up multiple nodes in a load balancing environment on
a cluster file system (not an NFS). The administrator needs to specify a shared area where the multiple nodes can
place return code files and copy checkpoint information, so that the various nodes are aware of activity. What
parameter is used to specify this?

A. ndm.path
B. comm.info
C. quiesce.resume
D. snode.work.path

Answer: D

Friday 20 October 2017

C9020-563 IBM System Storage DS8000 Technical Solutions V5

Number of questions: 60
Number of questions to pass: 34
Time allowed: 120 mins

This exam consists of 4 sections described below.

Customer Requirements 20%
Identify customer business drivers and goals.
Identify customer technology requirements.
Identify constraints in the customer's physical environment.

Pre-sales Technical Support 27%
Describe differences between IBM DS8000 and other IBM storage products.
Given a scenario, describe when to select IBM DS8000 as the preferred IBM storage product.
Describe technical capabilities of the IBM DS8000 system.
Compare IBM DS8000 advantages over competitor products.

Solution Architecture 33%
Given a scenario, configure a system to meet a customer requirements.
Given a scenario, ensure a solution is supported in a customer's SAN and server infrastructure.
Determine the capacity required to support multiple platforms.
Given a scenario, design a solution to meet the desired performance of a storage subsystem.
Given a scenario, architect a solution that includes other advanced functions of the IBM DS8000.
Given a scenario, architect a replication solution in metro, global, three-site and four-site environments including sizing of connectivity requirements and copy services.
Given a scenario, determine required licenses.
Identify requirements and benefits of additional external software.
Given a scenario, conduct a TDA of an IBM DS8000.

Solution Design and Implementation 20%
Describe how to perform administrative tasks in the CLI and GUI in the IBM DS8000.
Describe license management in the IBM DS8000.
Given a scenario, design the logical configuration in the IBM DS8000.
Given a scenario, determine sizing requirements of a design.
Given a scenario, design host access in the IBM DS8000.
Given a scenario, design detailed point-in-time copy solution and remote copy services solution.
Describe remote support capabilities in the IBM DS8000.
Describe local alerting features and functions in the IBM DS8000.
Describe security features and functions in the IBM DS8000.
Given a scenario, describe processes, procedures, or resources to help resolve installation and implementation issues related to the IBM DS8000.
Describe additional IBM fee-based services and resources.

PartnerWorld Code: 23002405
Replaces PW Code: Not Applicable

Status: Live
This IBM System Storage DS8000 Technical Solutions specialist can work independently to provide pre-sales technical support, solution design, and implementation planning for the IBM System Storage DS8000 in an open systems and/or IBM z Systems mainframe environment to meet customer requirements. This specialist can also identify customer requirements and architect and design appropriate solutions to meet the requirements.

IBM products included on this certification exam include IBM DS8000, IBM DS8884, IBM DS8886, IBM DS8888, IBM SAN, IBM Spectrum Control, IBM Spectrum Protect and IBM SAN Volume Controller with IBM Spectrum Virtualize software.
This specialist can perform the following tasks without assistance: articulate the differences (from other IBM storage) and/or competitive advantages of currently marketed IBM System Storage DS8000 solutions in an IBM z Systems or open systems environment; correctly position the IBM DS8000 in the IBM storage solutions portfolio; be familiar with general features of current and previous IBM DS8000 systems for purposes of upgrades and compatibility; use IBM tools to size and design a configuration to meet requirements (Disk Magic, Capacity Magic, eConfig); take technical responsibility for the pre-sales and pre-installation Technical Delivery and Assurance (TDA) process; recommend options for advanced functions appropriate to the OS environment, e.g., Global Copy, FlashCopy, Metro Mirror, Global Mirror, Metro/Global Mirror, QoS, thin provisioning, z/OS Global Mirror, HyperSwap, dataset FlashCopy, PAV, zHPF, and distributed data backup; understand the architectural features, e.g., encryption, tiering, RAS, and VMware integration; verify the interoperability of the solution via SSIC in the customer environment; understand and position the integration with PowerHA, IBM Spectrum Storage family, GDPS, and other IBM products; possess knowledge of the IBM support organization and resources where to find assistance when needed; understand options available for migration and environments where they are applicable; have a basic understanding of LSS and how it relates to copy services.
This specialist can perform the following tasks with assistance: provide post-sales support of the solution; develop a migration strategy; work in heterogeneous operating system environments, e.g., mainframe and open systems; and design business continuity solutions.
This specialist can use the following tools and resources: Knowledge Center; Disk Magic; Capacity Magic; STAT; eConfig; TDAs; DS8000 GUI and DS8000 CLI; IBM Sales Manual; IBM Spectrum Control, Copy Services Manager, IBM Spectrum Protect Snapshot, and SKLM; System Storage Interoperation Center (SSIC); and Redbooks.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills

6 months experience in a DS8000 pre-sales technical support role
24 months or more general storage experience and enterprise class storage experience
Implement an IBM DS8000 system in an open systems or mainframe environment
Capability to work independently and effectively in complex environments

Requirements
This certification requires 1 exam

Exam Required:
Click on the link below to see exam details, exam objectives, suggested training and sample tests.
C9020-563 - IBM System Storage DS8000 Technical Solutions V5

QUESTION 1
A customer has two data centers and wants to plan for synchronous replication. Its telecommunications vendor has proposed different replication link bandwidths to choose from.
What must be considered when sizing the replication link?

A. Read I/Os per second on the primary system
B. Write MB/s on the primary system
C. The number of HBAs installed on the primary system
D. Capacity installed on the secondary system

Answer: A

Explanation:
References:
https://www.ibm.com/developerworks/community/blogs/storwizecopyservices/entry/sizingreplication?lang=en


QUESTION 2
A customer wants to use Global Mirror to replicate at 1000 kilometers but is concerned about the capacity at the remote site.
What is the minimum number of total copies of the data that must exist at the local and remote sites to support Global Mirror?

A. 4
B. 6
C. 2
D. 3

Answer: C

Explanation:
Global Mirror is a method of asynchronous, remote data replication between two sites that are over 300 kilometers (km) apart. It maintains identical data in both the source and target, where the source is located in one storage system and the target is located in another storage system. Using Global Mirror, your data exists on the second site that is more than 300 KM away, and can be restored to the first site.
References: https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SSSKXG_1.5.0/com.ibm.sspc_v15.doc/f rg_c_sspc_ct.html


QUESTION 3
What is a competitive advantage of IBM DS8880 Global Mirror versus EMC asynchronous remote replication?

A. No requirement for additional cache
B. No requirement for host software to manage consistency groups
C. No need for additional software to mix mainframe and open volumes in a single consistency group
D. No need to implement external time source

Answer: C


QUESTION 4
Which amperage option is available for the IBM DS8884 power cord?

A. 110 amp
B. 90 amp
C. 30 amp
D. 15 amp

Answer: C

Explanation:
The DS8884 configurations do not use more than 30 amps.
References: http://www-01.ibm.com/common/ssi/ShowDoc.wss?docURL=/common/ssi/rep_rp/1/ENUS8S1571/inde x.html&lang=en&request_locale=en

Friday 13 October 2017

C5050-287 Foundations of IBM Cloud Reference Architecture V5

Number of questions: 60
Number of questions to pass:
Time allowed: 90 mins

Section 1 - Cloud Computing Concepts and Benefits
Define the cloud computing business advantages.
Define cloud architecture.
Describe considerations such as risk, cost and compliance around cloud computing.
Define automation as it pertains to cloud computing.
Define why standardization is important to cloud computing.
Define service catalog as it pertains to cloud computing.
Define a public cloud.
Define a private cloud.
Define a hybrid cloud.
Define the difference between a private cloud, a public cloud, and a hybrid cloud.
Define Software as a Service (SaaS).
Define Platform as a Service (PaaS).
Define Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS).
Define DevOps as it pertains to cloud computing.
Explain Maturity as it relates to SaaS, PaaS, and IaaS.
Explain the benefits of patterns as description of cloud services.
Define software defined environments as they relate to cloud computing.
Summarize how business processes can be automated in a cloud environment.

Section 2 - Cloud Computing Design Principles
Demonstrate base knowledge needed to advise on creating a cloud infrastructure.
Explain Cloud networking principles.
Explain Cloud storage principles such as block object file and storage area networks
Describe security strategies in a cloud computing environment.
Design principle for cloud ready applications including patterns, chef, puppet, and heat templates.
Design principles for cloud native applications such as open standards and 12-Factor app.
Design principles for DevOps.
Designing consumable applications for the cloud.
Define hybrid integration capabilities.
Define API Economy in Cloud Computing.
Define how solutions in the cloud can be more effective.
Explain to the customer how some popular billing models work and how they pertain to the software the customer has.
Describe principles for governance, compliance and service management.

Section 3 - IBM Cloud Reference Architecture
Explain the four defining principles of IBM Cloud.
Explain the benefits of using the IBM Cloud Reference Architecture (ICRA).
Explain the Cloud Platform Services for ICRA including containers, foundational services, etc.
Explain the Cloud Service Provider Adoption Pattern for ICRA.
Describe the ICRA Building SaaS cloud adoption pattern.
Explain the Hybrid patterns for ICRA
Describe the solution integration process detailed in the ICRA to take an existing environment to an IBM Cloud Computing environment.
Design a secure cloud service model using ICRA.
Describe high availability and disaster recovery as it pertains to cloud computing.
Describe actors and roles as defined in ICRA (Cloud Service Consumers, Cloud Service Creators, Cloud Service Provider, Cloud Services and the Common Cloud Management Platform).
Describe how IBM Service Management can effectively manage a customer's cloud environment.
Describe the IBM API management capabilities.
Describe the role of governance in the ICRA.
Describe non-functional requirements (NFRs) as described by ICRA.
Explain the role of mobile as part of the ICRA.
Explain the Cognitive pattern as part of the ICRA.
Explain the IOT pattern as part of the ICRA.
Explain the DevOps pattern as part of the ICRA.
Explain the Big Data and Analytics pattern as part of the ICRA.

Section 4 - IBM Cloud Solutions
Describe the IBM capabilities for Cloud Managed Services.
Describe the IBM capabilities for hybrid integration.
Describe the IBM capabilities for video services.
Describe the IBM capabilities for cloud brokerage.
Describe the IBM capabilities for DevOps.
Describe the IBM capabilities for cloud native applications.
Describe the IBM capabilities for service management.
Describe the IBM capabilities for storage.
Describe the IBM capabilities for business process management.
Describe the IBM capabilities for the IBM Marketplace.

Overview
PartnerWorld Code: 50001105
Replaces PW Code: 50001104

Status: Live
An IBM Certified Solution Advisor - Cloud Reference Architecture V5 is a person who can clearly explain the benefits and underlying concepts of cloud computing. They can also demonstrate how the IBM Cloud solution offerings can help customers realize these benefits.

Key areas of competency include:
Explain cloud computing concepts.
Describe how the customer can realize the benefits of cloud computing within their environment.
Identify IBM Cloud architecture and design principles.
Map customer's requirements to the IBM Cloud solution offerings.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills

The following qualifications are requirements for success:
Working knowledge of cloud principles and architecture
Working knowledge of the various cloud deployment models
Working knowledge of the various types of "as a service" offerings
Working knowledge of various cloud business models
Working knowledge of key concerns and how they are addressed in cloud such as security, compliance, performance, storage, and data.
Working knowledge of emerging trends in cloud computing such as API economy, big data and analytics, internet of things, microservices, and mobile.
Working knowledge of the IBM Cloud Reference Architecture and associated adoption patterns.
Working knowledge of the IBM Cloud solution offerings.

Requirements
This certification requires 1 exam

Exam Required:
Click on the link below to see exam details, exam objectives, suggested training and sample tests.

C5050-287 - Foundations of IBM Cloud Reference Architecture V5
QUESTION: No: 1
Which technology best supports application portability?

A. docker containers
B. OpenFIow
C. docker stacks
D. OpenDayIight

Answer: A


QUESTION: No: 2
What challenge of hybrid cloud environments is addressed by IBM solutions like IBM Cast Iron, IBM
MobiIeFirst platform integration and IBM API Management?

A. lack of workload portability
B. integration of systems of engagement and systems of record
C. service management of provisioned systems
D. mobile applications security in hybrid cloud environments

Answer: B


QUESTION: No: 3
What is the principal reason that continuous testing is necessary in the agile world?

A. So that multiply teams can get better utilization out of testing environments
B. To bridge the gap between slow and fast speed IT development
C. For supports the large volume and high frequency of changes driven by cloud native development approaches
D. To ensure application interoperability across public cloud providers.

Answer: B


QUESTION: No: 4
What are three essential cloud characteristics?

A. broad network access
B. on-demand self Service
C. economies of scale
D. measured service
E. vendor lock-in prevention
F. workload virtualization

Answer: A, B, D

Friday 6 October 2017

C5050-062 Rational UrbanCode Deploy

Test information:
Number of questions: 70
Time allowed in minutes: 75
Required passing score: 70%
Languages: English, Japanese, Japanese

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Deployment Professional - Rational UrbanCode Deploy

Section 1: How UrbanCode Deploy fits within IBM DevOps
Recognize and describe the IBM approach to DevOps
Identify and describe the capabilities that UrbanCode Deploy delivers to IBM DevOps
Identify and describe the concepts and challenges of continuous software delivery in a DevOps context

Section 2: Implementing Security in UrbanCode Deploy
Use UC Deploy to configure group and team roles
Use UC Deploy to configure External security realms including LDAP, Active Directory and SSO.
Identify the features of the security model used by UC Deploy

Section 3: Programming and Plugins
Determine the various types of plugins for UC Deploy
Use automation and source configuration plugins in UC Deploy
Update and delete plugins in UC Deploy

Section 4: UrbanCode Deploy Architecture
Identify the concepts of Resources, Resource Groups, Agents, Agent Relays Agent Pools
Recognize the concepts of Applications, Components, Snapshots, Versions and Artifacts
Recognize the elements of the Basic Usage Model of UrbanCode Deploy and the flow of operations including configuration of the deployment environment, development, deploy to the pipeline and chaining of environment deployments

Section 5: UrbanCode Deploy Integrations
Identify UC Deploy integration capabilities with other products
Identify UC Deploy and Cloud integration capabilities

Section 6: Using UrbanCode Deploy
Determine the requirements for product installation
Use UC Deploy to create and configure Applications and related Environments, Processes, Approvals, +Notifications and Properties
Use UC Deploy to create and configure Components and related artifacts, properties and versions
Use UC Deploy to create snapshots
Use UC Deploy to create and configure Resources and related Agents, Subresources, Resource Roles and +Resource Templates
Identify and describe the concepts of Inventory, Compliancy and Model-driven Deployments

IBM Certified Deployment Professional - Rational UrbanCode Deploy

Job Role Description / Target Audience
This certification targets intermediate level Deployment Professionals. This Deployment Professional can plan, install, configure and troubleshoot a new implementation of the UrbanCode Deploy product. The Deployment Professional can also upgrade, update, configure and troubleshoot existing installations of UrbanCode Deploy.

The Deployment Professional should have an intermediate level of knowledge of UrbanCode Deploy and a firm understanding of how UrbanCode Deploy can be implemented in a small and simple environment as well as a large and complex environment. The Deployment Professional can train, tutor and mentor IBM customers in the installation, configuration and ongoing use of UrbanCode Deploy. The Deployment Professional can perform most of these tasks independently and may require some assistance from peers and vendor support services.

Requirements
This certification requires 1 test(s).
QUESTION: No: 1
A security type is a product area that can have permissions defined for it. Each security type has a set of
permissions that affect how users interact with it. How many security types are available in IBM
Urban Code Deploy?

A. 13
B. 10
C. 3
D. 5

Answer: D

Explanation:
A security type is a product area that has permissions defined for it. There are several security types predefined. They are system, application, release, deployment, status, and initiatives and changes.
Other than the Status security type, permissions are predefined.

References:
http://vvww.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SS4GCC_6.2.1/com.ibm.ureIease.doc/topics/security_types.htmI


QUESTION: No: 2
In orderto set up an integration with WebSphere, you first perform a WebSphere Topology Discovery.
WebSphere is not installed in a default location and so you must notify IBNI UCD concerning the location
of the wsadmin executable. What is the name of the property thatyou must set, and where do you set it?

A. You must set the wsadmin.Iocation property on the correct resource.
B. You must set the wsadmin.path property on the correct agent.
C. You must set the wsadmin.executabIe on the correct resource.
D. You must set the wsadmin.Iocation on the correct agent.

Answer: B

Explanation:
If WebSphere Application Server is deployed in a directory otherthan the default directory, you must set a property on the agent before you can run the WebSphere Topology Discovery step.

1. Go to Resources > Agents > <agent-name> > Configuration > Agent Properties.
2. Add a property named wsadmin.path.
3. Set wsadmin.path to the fully qualified path tothe wsadmin script (including the script name).

References:
http://vvww.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SS4GSP_6.0.1/com.ibm.udepIoy.pIugins.doc/topics/pIu gins_websphereportaI_config_depIoy.htmI